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7/04/2018 8:59 pm  #1


Aristotelian realism vs Platonic realism

A common critique of the Platonic idea of a bifurcated reality where particulars exist in the physical realm and uninstantiated universals or forms exist in a non-physical realm, is that it's hard to understand or even fathom how a concrete spatially limited being could bear any relation to the radically transcendent, non-particular, non-physical form. But doesn't the Aristotelian have the same issue? On the Aristotelian view all forms are instantiated and are only universal when abstracted via an intellect--but how does a concrete particular bear such a relation to universal abstraction?

 

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