Posted by RomanJoe 5/06/2017 12:44 pm | #1 |
After reading Chapter Six of Dr. Feser's Philosophy of Mind, I think he may have overstated his case against epiphenomenalism. He seems to be saying that we can't have rational thought on such a view because mental events are merely "extra" and they are irrelevant to the causal efficacy of material brain events. He says:
"Your thoughts that Socrates is a man and that all men are mortal are a rational justification for believing that Socrates is mortal only because they have the meaning they do, and they would not serve as a rational justification for the latter thought if they meant instead that Fido is a dog, etc."
He goes on to argue that the meaning or content of a thought plays no role in the actual brain event. Under this understanding, the content or meaning is irrelevant to the causal relations of brain events, and you can't have any rational justification because of this. But one could easily object that the mental content that Socrates is a man is necessarily tied to the brain event in such a way that it isn't irrelevant or arbitrary--that is, it couldn't have been any other way, it couldn't have been (as Feser suggests) Fido is a dog.
Posted by Jeremy Taylor 5/06/2017 6:04 pm | #2 |
This is more an objection to the argument from reason as a whole. The response is to say how could mental content necessarily be tied to brain events in such a way that it isn't irrelevant or arbitrary? How could propositional content and the logical relationships between propositions play an important role in neurons firing? It is hard even know what that could mean. This is what would be necessary to respond to the argument from reason. Indeed, it is hard to see how propositional content and logical relations could have any causal power at all (hence those brands of materialist leaning perspectives on the mind that do recognise mental events as non-physical, almost always embrace epiphemomenalism), given a naturalistic understanding of causation, let alone cause other brain/mental states in a manner consistent with reliable logical inference.
Let's not forget that formal reasoning is necessary: if the premises are true then the conclusion must follow. Brain events, like all physical events, are contingent. How could a brain event therefore be tied to mental content in the correct way to trust our reasoning?
Posted by RomanJoe 5/07/2017 2:59 am | #3 |
Jeremy Taylor wrote:
This is more an objection to the argument from reason as a whole. The response is to say how could mental content necessarily be tied to brain events in such a way that it isn't irrelevant or arbitrary? How could propositional content and the logical relationships between propositions play an important role in neurons firing? It is hard even know what that could mean. This is what would be necessary to respond to the argument from reason. Indeed, it is hard to see how propositional content and logical relations could have any causal power at all (hence those brands of materialist leaning perspectives on the mind that do recognise mental events as non-physical, almost always embrace epiphemomenalism), given a naturalistic understanding of causation, let alone cause other brain/mental states in a manner consistent with reliable logical inference.
Let's not forget that formal reasoning is necessary: if the premises are true then the conclusion must follow. Brain events, like all physical events, are contingent. How could a brain event therefore be tied to mental content in the correct way to trust our reasoning?
Great points! Forgive me for playing Devil's advocate (it's how I learn), but couldn't rational thinking still be preserved even if mental events are irrelevant to the purely material causation of the brain? That is, couldn't rational thinking still be preserved even if the neuronal signals end up doing all the causal work while the mental events are merely "extra" (and the idea that mental events stand in causal relation would be purely illusory). Here's a crude illustration:
You have a calculator and whenever you press a numeral or sign it will audibly speak that numeral or sign. So, for instance, when you press 2+2 = and you get 4 you will hear "two plus two equals four." For purposes of the illustration, let's treat the audio as mental or nonphysical, and the pressing of the numerals and signs, along with their subsequent display on the calculator's screen, as material or physical. On this view, then, the audio has no bearing on the rational formulaic process of 2+2=4. It merely announces the numerals. Furthermore, even if the audio made chicken noises every time your pressed a numeral, it would still have no bearing on the displayed formula which would still remain 2+2=4. So the audio is irrelevant to the physical cause of punching in the formula and its subsequent display on the screen. This doesn't mean, however, that the rationale behind the physical cause (namely that 2 and 2 is equal to 4) is lost. Quite the contrary, the physical event operates independently and rationally from the non-physical event.
I suppose I'm having difficulty seeing why physical brain events by themselves cannot produce rational thinking.
Posted by Jeremy Taylor 5/07/2017 5:34 am | #4 |
But the physical causes, in this case neurons, don't cause each other according to propostional content and the logical relations between proppsitions. They cause each according to chemical or physical powers or laws. How can we understand that physical causation to in fact to take account of propostional content and logical relations? It doesn't seem to make sense. In your example, the symbols have their meaning from human convention. The physical processes are human made symbols that symbolise a chain of reasoning. In themselves calculators don't reason.
Remember, we need more than that we brain states and mental states happen to align. It can't be fortuitous, because that wouldn't allow us to trust our reason. We need to show why the propostional content and relations between proppsitions must be matched by brain states that cause one mental state to follow another.
Posted by RomanJoe 5/07/2017 12:45 pm | #5 |
Jeremy Taylor wrote:
But the physical causes, in this case neurons, don't cause each other according to propostional content and the logical relations between proppsitions. They cause each according to chemical or physical powers or laws. How can we understand that physical causation to in fact to take account of propostional content and logical relations? It doesn't seem to make sense. In your example, the symbols have their meaning from human convention. The physical processes are human made symbols that symbolise a chain of reasoning. In themselves calculators don't reason.
Remember, we need more than that we brain states and mental states happen to align. It can't be fortuitous, because that wouldn't allow us to trust our reason. We need to show why the propostional content and relations between proppsitions must be matched by brain states that cause one mental state to follow another.
I still don't see why rational thinking would be incapable given a purely material chain of brain state causation where the mental states are just secondary and irrelevant. Why can't a neural process identical to "All men are mortal" and another neural process identical to "Socrates is a man" yield a neural process identical to "Socrates is mortal"?
Posted by Jeremy Taylor 5/07/2017 4:42 pm | #6 |
But those are propositions, not neural processes. I'm not sure what you mean? Are you arguing for identity theory? Where things like propositional content turn out to be physical? It seems hard to see how propositional content could be physical, given our idea of the physical. Identity theory is not epiphenomenalist, because it identifies mental states and brain states, so the mental states do have causality (it is just they are physical). The problem is understanding how neurons or atoms or whatever can be identical to propositions and how the physical causation involved can act according to propositional content and logical laws. It doesn't seem to make sense.
Posted by RomanJoe 5/07/2017 6:35 pm | #7 |
I suppose I'm not really arguing for an emergent immaterial mental reality. Rather I'm arguing presently for the reduction of mental events to material events. Could not a firing of neurons give us propositions in the same way splotches of ink in a book do?
Posted by Jeremy Taylor 5/07/2017 7:12 pm | #8 |
But with the ink blots, the meaning is derivative. It comes from humans. There's no intrinsic meaning in writing, or in the symbols on a calculator, except what humans assign to it. I don't see how this would be any different for neurons.
Posted by RomanJoe 5/07/2017 7:52 pm | #9 |
Ah, you're right! Intentionality seems totally inexplicable on the view I described.
Posted by RomanJoe 5/08/2017 5:16 pm | #10 |
Jeremy Taylor wrote:
But those are propositions, not neural processes. I'm not sure what you mean? Are you arguing for identity theory? Where things like propositional content turn out to be physical? It seems hard to see how propositional content could be physical, given our idea of the physical. Identity theory is not epiphenomenalist, because it identifies mental states and brain states, so the mental states do have causality (it is just they are physical). The problem is understanding how neurons or atoms or whatever can be identical to propositions and how the physical causation involved can act according to propositional content and logical laws. It doesn't seem to make sense.
Okay wow, I totally missed the strength of your objection the first time I read this a couple days back. I believe I'm grasping it correctly. You're arguing that the firing patterns of certain clumps of neurons could not account for the logical relations between propositions which are mental. That is, if the mental is reducible to mere neurons firing then it's hard to see how the material causal relations of these neurons could account for the logical relations of propositions--i.e., it seems impossible to think of neural firing A logically entailing neural firing B. This would be like saying, in a series of collapsing dominoes, that domino A logically entails domino B--there are physical causal relations between the dominoes, but such relations are completely devoid of logical relations. So, given this view, it seems as if a purely material causal process of neural firing patterns could not account for our everyday use of propositional logic.
I think, however, if they were so inclined to preserve materialism, they could perhaps argue that logical relations are ultimately illusory and all that exists are the neural causal relations. That is, when neural firing pattern A (representing "All men are mortal"), considered with neural firing pattern B ("Socrates is a man), which in turn causes neural firing pattern C ("Therefore Socrates is mortal"), is not really a logical relation. We are only given the illusory impression that it is a logical relation but it is purely reducible to material causation.