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Theoretical Philosophy » Time » 2/12/2016 11:36 am

Thanks for the quotes, John.  A few responses to Forrest:

By not positing a flat boundary we avoid any commitment to a privileged frame of reference

This does eliminate the privileged-reference-frame problem.  However, it makes his theory seem less and less like a theory of time.  The modern physical definition of time is still essentially Aristotle's: Time is a measure of motion. When we play out the implications in special relativity of this definition of time, we find that the locus of events taking place "at the same time" is flat. (See the "appendix" below for a totally skippable justification of that claim.)

So, if the boundary of the Growing Block is not flat, then it is not behaving like time, defined as a measure of motion.  Therefore, a theory about the Growing boundary isn't a theory about time as such.  It's a theory about something else (such as "becoming", maybe).   It might even be best to think of this "something else" as having only an incidental relationship to time.

'[N]owb' is frame-independent, and so presentists and no-futurists have a much more intuitive way of thinking, not available to the likes of Braddon-Mitchell. For the question 'Is Plato still alive nowb?' admits of a definite answer.

This is a bad example, unless I'm missing his point.  For, Braddon-Mitchell can reply that the question "Is Plato still alive nowi?" also has a definite answer, if uttered here-and-now.  Plato's death occurred in the backward light cone of here-and-now.  So, if you are here-and-now, then Plato's death is in your past regardless of your reference frame.  It is true that Relativity makes the orderings of some events depend on your reference frame.  Nonetheless, the pair {Plato's death, here-and-now} cannot be reordered by changing frames.  Every reference frame will agree that Plato's death happened before here-and-no

Theoretical Philosophy » Time » 2/02/2016 8:00 pm

John West wrote:

A third alternative, which may do better with relativity but doesn't help against Tom's argument, is the Growing Salami Theory (which some call the Growing Block).

Why would the Growing Salami Theory (GST) do any better with special relativity (SR)?

GST would entail a preferred reference frame — namely, the unique inertial frame in which the events with time coordinate t = 0 (the present, say) are all on the "leading face" of the Salami.  Furthermore, if you are in any other inertial reference frame, then, while you are on the leading face, some of the events that are in your past (t < 0) aren't yet in the Salami, while some of the events in your future (t > 0) are already in the Salami, "behind" the leading face.

In other words, some events that are non-existent (assuming GST) right now will prove in the future to have happened prior to right now.

If SR and GST are both true, then the exists/doesn't-exist-yet border is sweeping through events transversely to the past/future border (unless you happen to be in that one preferred reference frame).  That is, you don't have that "the past exists, while the future doesn't."  Instead you have, "some of the past exists, while the rest doesn't, and some of the future exists, while the rest doesn't".  The distinction between what is in the Salami and what isn't doesn't coincide with whatever distinguishes the past from the future.

Theoretical Philosophy » Thomist natural theologions who deny devine revelation? » 12/22/2015 6:22 pm

Are there any Thomists who buy all of the Natural Theology in Thomism, but who buy absolutely none of the “sacred science” beyond that?

In other words, I'm looking for explicit, self-avowed Thomists who don't believe in any additional divine revelation. Is there anyone, now or in the past, who says something like the following?

"Hypothetical Position" wrote:

I completely agree with Aquinas about what human reason alone can tell us about God. Everything that he says about God that he attributes solely to human reason is completely persuasive to me. I also agree with him completely about what the limits of human reason are. I further agree with him that all the additional Christian beliefs that he attributes to divine revelation are logically coherent; that is, all of Aquinas's defenses of these beliefs from charges of incoherence succeed. I also agree that, when Aquinas uses human reason to draw implications from divine revelation, he makes valid conditional inferences.

BUT I don't buy any claim that any divine revelation has actually happened. I agree with Aquinas about how far human reason can take us, but I think that, beyond that point, there is no justified belief. I think that a rational appraisal of the evidence would find vanishingly little support for a divine origin of any of the purported revelations that have come down to us.

I concede that human reason leaves ‘gaps’ in our picture of God (e.g., about whether God is ‘three persons, one being’). I offer no alternative account to fill in these gaps. I agree that the Christian account is one possibility (epistemically speaking) for what might truly be the case. Certainly something is the case, some account is true, if not the Christian one. But I assert that there is no justification for believing in any account that goes beyond what human reason alone can provide.

[This post is based on [url=http://edwardfeser.blogspot.com/2014/03/i-was-wrong-about-keith-parsons.

Theoretical Philosophy » Mathematical Platonism » 10/26/2015 2:05 am

iwpoe wrote:

Empiricist and naturalist epistemologies are fundamentally wrong and should be thrown out given that they cannot even account for their own activity.

Who said anything about empiricism or naturalism? I will settle for an epistemological epistemology:  An account of a known thing must account for how I know the thing.  This is where mathematical platonism fails, so far as I can see.

Theoretical Philosophy » Mathematical Platonism » 10/26/2015 1:48 am

For me, the most compelling case for mathematical platonism appeals to my strong intuition that (say) the twin prime conjecture must have a determinate truth value. The intuition is that this conjecture has a truth value even if

(1) it turns out not to be a logical consequence of any of our axioms,

(2) it turns out not to be a logical consequence of any axioms that would ever seem "intuitively obvious" to us, and

(3) its truth or falsity depends on the behavior of integers so large that no actual thing will ever realize them (i.e., be numerous enough to be counted by them).

I don't know how to make sense of this intuition without positing something like "platonic" integers that exist independently of human thought and even of the existence of numerable things.

The biggest problem with such platonic entities, for me, is that I don't see how we could have any knowledge of them, even if they do exist.  They don't seem to do any work in accounting for actual mathematical knowledge or practice.

The upshot is that I've gradually lost confidence in my intuition that the twin prime conjecture would have a truth value even under the circumstances that I described above.

Theoretical Philosophy » Can someone unpack this for me please? » 10/16/2015 12:23 am

I suspect this to be incoherent ...

Are you suspecting that David Braine's argument is incoherent, or are you suspecting the reason why what he calls incoherent is, in his view, incoherent?

Blaine's argument seems to me to rest on two ideas:

(1) Any direct consequence of a nature's activity must be contemporaneous with that activity. In other words, an action at time t₀ cannot "reach into the future" to have a direct effect at some later time t₁. Only actions at t₁ can have direct effects at time t₁. For, at time t₁, actions from earlier times no longer exist (on this view), so no such action can be the direct cause of anything at t₁.

(2) If a nature N "explains" the existence of a thing T, then it must be the case that, were T not there, but (roughly) all else were "as equal as it could be", then something would have to have been actively blocking N from bringing about the existence of T. That is, T's nonexistence (while all else is "as equal as it could be") must entail the existence of such a "blocker". Otherwise, N can't really be accounting for T's existence.

With that in the background, I'd interpret Blaine's argument to be as follows:

First, some premises. In conformity with idea (1) above, each premise is "tensed", in the sense that each proposition is to be taken as a description of the world at a particular time. For example, in each implication, the consequent is taken to be true when the antecedent is true.

Premise 1. A fact F can be explained by appealing to a nature N only if, at some time, a truthmaker of F "flowed" from N.

(I'll be putting "flow" in quotes because I don't want to define exactly what it means. The logical role played by the word should be clear from where it appears in the premises of the argument.)

Premise 2. Some truthmaker of a fact F "flows" from a nat

Theoretical Philosophy » Transcendental Illusion » 10/11/2015 6:57 pm

The "pointing" language was just my attempt to render what seemed to me to be the plain reading of the first Critique. I didn't realize that I was stumbling into a controversial interpretation! I haven't read Husserl yet, so I didn't get it from him. To be honest, I am not as familiar as I should be with continental philosophy after Kant. I've read some Heidegger, who was a student of Husserl, and who does use "pointing" language, but not to say what I'm attributing to Kant. (Or, at least, I didn't consciously make that connection.)

I should clarify something that I may have expressed poorly above. For Kant, experience doesn't contain pointers that point at noumena, strictly speaking. To explain what I mean by "strictly speaking", let me distinguish the following three cases of "pointing":

(1) A finger pointing at the Moon in the sky.

(2) The track left by a subatomic particle in a bubble chamber.

(3) The inadequacy of the totality of experience to account for its own existence.

In the first case, our eyes can follow the finger to look directly at the Moon. The pointing brings the pointed-at within the realm of the actually experienced.

In the second case, we can see only the track itself (in a photograph, say). The track "points at" the subatomic particle, but the particle itself is merely inferred, not experienced. We cannot follow the track as if it were the finger in Case (1) to gaze upon the particle itself.

Nonetheless, as with the finger in Case (1), we can use the track somehow to add the particle itself to the "furniture" with which we populate the world. We acquire a concept of the particle as an object within the empirical world that we inhabit. We have real knowledge of the particle itself. Moreover, Kant would insist that the particle itself is a possible experience. We'd just need a sufficiently strong microscope to see it directly. That power of magnification may be forever beyond our ability as a practical matter, but it r

Theoretical Philosophy » Transcendental Illusion » 10/06/2015 7:41 pm

I'm going to give a more sympathetic account of Kant's position.

For Kant, the proper object of every concept must be something that you could find in experience.

Now, you can take your general concept of "an object X of experience" and abstract away any part of this concept that refers to its being found in experience.  The remaining "denuded" concept will be that of "an object X in general".  But, by that point, the concept would be so general as to be almost vacuous.

While you could proceed to manipulate this concept according to the rules of logic, none of your inferences would count as knowledge about anything beyond what could be found in a possible experience.  For, your inferences would still be valid of the original "pre-denuded" concept, namely, "an object X of experience".  Removing the proviso "of experience" doesn't open up any new avenues of inference.  (Analogously, any valid logical inference about balls in general is also valid if restricted to red balls in particular. For, if the inference failed when applied to red balls, then it couldn't be true of an arbitrary ball [which could be red, after all], and hence it couldn't be true of balls in general.)  Therefore, such a concept can't teach you anything about whatever is beyond experience as such.

You could further mutilate your concept of "an object X" by adding the negation of experience.  This would leave you with the concept of "an object X, but not one of experience".  But, in Kant's view, merely negating part of a concept cannot open up any new inferences.  You're merely "cutting the legs out from under" some of the inferences that applied to the original concept.  You learn nothing positive about such an object X.  You only learn that any predicate that entails the possibility of being experienced does not apply to X.

Nonetheless, Kant says that we can know that something exists beyond the experienceable. For, he claims, the manifold of experience always p

Theoretical Philosophy » Hume's Fork and mathematical knowledge » 8/21/2015 7:17 pm

John West wrote:

The old logicism has pretty much collapsed due to results like Godel's incompleteness theorems. There are some neo-logicists out there still, but not many.

Gödel's Theorems are a problem if you want to say that math is just about the logical consequences of a particular fixed set of axioms.  Mathematics proves to be "too rich" to be captured by any such set.  Can't the logicist just say that logic itself is similarly "too rich"?

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