Theoretical Philosophy » Seeking Clarification of Feser's Philosophy » 7/11/2015 11:42 am |
John West wrote:
Hi truthseeker,
Would it be correct of me to suppose that, at root, you're asking "What entails that we ought to accept the act/potency distinction?"
Excuse me, I should've been more careful in my reply. Ultimately, I want to know what entails that we ought to accept the act/potency distinction. But thus far in the thread, I just want to know how refuting Parmenides requires that we accept the distinction, and how refuting Zeno requires that we accept the distinction. I would appreciate it if for now we focused on Parmenides' and Zeno's arguments and how they require that we accept the distinction.
Scott wrote:
truthseeker wrote:
1. Everything that changes is changed by something else.
2. Being and only Being exists.
C. Therefore, nothing changes.
This argument is valid.Only if it's regarded as an enthymeme with the missing premise
3. Being is simple and is not multiplied.
When I wrote 2., I intended 'Being' to be a proper name for the one and only entity. Thus, I understand your 3. to be equivalent to my 2.
Theoretical Philosophy » Seeking Clarification of Feser's Philosophy » 7/11/2015 11:16 am |
Yes.
Theoretical Philosophy » Seeking Clarification of Feser's Philosophy » 7/09/2015 6:35 pm |
Timocrates wrote:
So you believe that from nothing anything and, indeed, everything comes and will follow?
Do you believe that wood itself and as such can be anything or everything?
No, I believe neither of these propositions. I assume you ask these questions in connection with my rejection of Parmenides's argument providing a compelling reason to accept the act/potency distinction.
Feser, paraphrasing Parmenides, wrote:
(1) Change would require being to arise out of non-being or nothingness.
(2) From non-being or nothingness, nothing can arise.
(C) Therefore, change is impossible.
All one needs to do to refute the argument is choose one of the following:
~(1) Change would not require being to arise out of non-being or nothingness.
~(2) From non-being or nothingness, something can arise.
Accepting ~(1) seems to me to be the best way to deal with Feser's Parmenides. Here's a scenario that disproves (1): A man covers a hole by pushing a stone in front of it with a stick. The state of affairs of the stone covering the hole is a being. When that being comes into being after not being the case, one can say that that being arises. That being arises out of the man's pushing the stone with the stick, and the man's pushing the stone with the stick is also a being. There is a change here, and the change doesn't involve being arising out of non-being or nothingness. It involves a being arising from another being. I did not have to invoke the act/potency distinction in this scenario, so there are other ways of refuting Parmenides's argument than invoking the act/potency distinction. Thus, the argument doesn't force us to accept the act/potency distinction.
Theoretical Philosophy » Seeking Clarification of Feser's Philosophy » 7/08/2015 9:09 pm |
Let me state to be what I take to be an argument equivalent to the rendtion of Parmenides's argument DanielCC presented in the thread to which you linked:
1. Everything that changes is changed by something else.
2. Being and only Being exists.
C. Therefore, nothing changes.
This argument is valid. One can avoid the conclusion by accepting one of the following:
~1. Something that changes is changed by itself.
~2. Something other than Being exists.
One can refute the above rendition of Parmenides without invoking potency. Suppose one accepts ~2 by saying that the objects in the scenario of the man who pushes a stone with stick exist. The man changes the stone by pushing it with the stick. Therefore, something changes.
Theoretical Philosophy » Seeking Clarification of Feser's Philosophy » 7/08/2015 7:00 pm |
Now that we've discussed what potency is, let's discuss why one would adopt the notion. Feser writes that one needs to adopt potency to refute the following arguments:
(1) Change would require being to arise out of non-being or nothingness.
(2) From non-being or nothingness, nothing can arise.
(C) Therefore, change is impossible.
(1') A runner can get from point A to point B only if he first reaches the midpoint between A and B.
(2') He can reach that midpoint only if the first reaches the point midway between A and the midpoint, then the point midway between A and that midpoint, and so on ad infinitum.
(C') Therefore, he can never move beyond A.
Neither of these arguments seem to me to require that one postulate potency. The premises of the first argument are ambiguous, and none of the disambiguations that I can think of necessitate the postulation of potency. The second argument is just invalid. Could someone explain to me why each of these arguments necessitate the postulation of potency?
Theoretical Philosophy » Seeking Clarification of Feser's Philosophy » 7/06/2015 9:31 pm |
Thanks for the link to Lowe's and Valicella's essays DanielCC.
I'd like to return to potencies again. Feser mentions the distinction between logical or objective potencies, which are only possible as objects of thought, and real or subjective potencies, which are grounded in the natures of real things.
John West wrote:
Well, the purely possible (ie. the possibility of a unicorn) is grounded in God, and God is absolutely simple, pure act.
Are ‘grounded in,’ ‘ontologically dependent on,’ and ‘ontologically posterior to’ synonymous?
Scott wrote:
…[For] Aquinas in particular, "possibilities" can be grounded either in the mind/intellect of God (Who is Pure Act) or in the potencies of substances that actually exist (which are not only actual themselves but also dependent on Pure Act for their existence, including their potencies).
Could the possibility of the existence of a substance be grounded in the potencies of a subject that actually exists? E.g., could the possibility of the existence of a child a woman might give birth to be grounded in the woman’s potencies?
Theoretical Philosophy » Seeking Clarification of Feser's Philosophy » 7/05/2015 7:13 pm |
There are other problematic cases of the sort you mention: Socrates has an essence. Does the essence of Socrates have an essence? If so, does the essence of the essence of Socrates have an essence? These kinds of cases suggest to me that there should either be a limit on that which can have an essence, or that the essence of some beings is identical to them. E.g., the essence of the essence of Socrates would be identical to the essence of Sorates.
Theoretical Philosophy » Seeking Clarification of Feser's Philosophy » 7/05/2015 5:59 pm |
My scholastic dictionary defines 'essence' as (1) 'that which a thing is, and without which it cannot be what it is;' and (2) 'the genus of a thing plus its specific difference.' At first was assuming only substances had essences. Now Scott says beings other than substances have essences, and iwpoe thinks numbers have essences. This leads me to ask, does absolutely every being (qualities, relations, actions, passions, etc.) have an essence?
Theoretical Philosophy » Seeking Clarification of Feser's Philosophy » 7/04/2015 9:38 pm |
What else besides substances have essences?
Theoretical Philosophy » Seeking Clarification of Feser's Philosophy » 7/04/2015 7:57 pm |
I've read and considered what you wrote, and I'm going to back off from trying to paraphrase statements about potencies using statements involving possibility for now. I'm returning to pp. 34-40 of SM, which cover kinds of act and potency. Let me ask some questions that are arising as I read.
Is a substantial form the same as an essence?