Theoretical Philosophy » Chandler Against S5 and the Necessity of Possibility » 4/25/2016 3:41 pm |
Premise (I) is false. Things can come into existence with a different set of parts.
Religion » The Third Commandment » 4/25/2016 1:52 am |
They still follow this interpretation when they read the MT. The words of "YHWH" are given the vocalization of "Adonai" in homage to the third commandment. However, the context of the Decalogue, both when Moses gave them from Mt. Sinai and in first-century Judaea when there was still a temple, the intended interpretation had to do with sacrifices.
Of course, there is some overlap to how we use God's name in speech, as back then nobody would mention God unless they were going to either expound theology or make an oath.
RE: Jacob, the meaning of any word is determined by context. The whole reason Jacob is making the comparison between his brother's face and "the face of God" is because the latter has connotations of extreme graciousness, and this simile would be lost if "elohim" meant just a generic judge or prince.
Religion » The Third Commandment » 4/23/2016 6:52 pm |
Most Christians take the third commandment to have something to do with how you use idiomatic expressions like "Oh my God" or "for God's sake" in your daily speech, but there is absolutely nothing in the Bible that says that this is a sin. In fact, Jacob said something very similar to our "Oh my God" in the original Hebrew when he met his brother Esau and said that he had the "face of God" (Genesis 33:10), and there's nothing indicating that he was rebuked by God for doing so. The third commandment has to do with how you invoke God's name in oaths, and the only time it is dealt with in the New Testament is when Jesus rebuked the Pharisees for how they developed elaborate rules for what constitutes as "swearing" and a "binding oath" to God.
"Matthew 23:16-22" wrote:
"Woe to you, blind guides! You say, 'If anyone swears by the temple, it means nothing; but anyone who swears by the gold of the templeis bound by that oath.' You blind fools! Which is greater: the gold, or the temple that makes the gold sacred? You also say, 'If anyone swears by the altar, it means nothing; but anyone who swears by the gift on the altar is bound by that oath.' You blind men! Which is greater: the gift, or the altar that makes the gift sacred? Therefore, anyone who swears by the altar swears by it and by everything on it. And anyone who swears by the temple swears by it and by the one who dwells in it. And anyone who swears by heaven swears by God's throne and by the one who sits on it."
Much like "breaking the Sabbath," it's not really a sin that a Christian can commit today. (And again, the only time that commandment was dealt with in the New Testament was when the Pharisees were making elaborate rules on what constituted "working" on the Sabbath.)
…Introductions » Hello World! » 4/22/2016 6:11 pm |
I think it was Greg.
Introductions » Hello World! » 4/22/2016 6:10 pm |
I came here because somebody from Dr. Feser's blog referred me here.
I am a graduate student of Mathematics at DePaul University in Chicago who has slowly come to realize that the education system of the USA has sought out to not teach children how to reason on purpose.
Theoretical Philosophy » William Lane Craig and Kevin Scharp | Is There Evidence for God? » 4/22/2016 5:55 pm |
KevinScharp wrote:
You've only cited a mathematical theory. What's the theory of causation based on it?
You've misunderstood my example. I brought up KK theory as a rebuttal to your claim that causality is inherently imprecise, as you appear to advocate here:
(Cause and effect) are two very old and imprecise concepts.
KevinScharp wrote:
Excellent -- give me citations of those who disagree with me. I have no idea what your last sentence means. I'm not saying causation is reducible
Let's start with David Hume. Hume in his monograph A Treatise of Human Nature, Book I, Part 3, explains that causality, while involving the juxtaposition of events in space and time, also involves a mysterious "necessary connection," and that this "necessary connection" is the principle object of investigation in the empirical sciences. However, he then goes on to say that any such inference of this "necessary connection" must be probabilistic in nature. It is because of this probabilistic nature that replication is essential to science.
Also, if you weren't saying that causality is reducible, then what exactly were you arguing when you brought up the fire example?
KevinScharp wrote:
Great, let's hear some examples.
KevinScharp wrote:
Can you give an argument for how causality is supposed to determine a manifold?
The principle that causality should work everywhere in the universe puts a constraint on any Lorentzian manifold that it be an orientable manifold. So we can known from causality that any tensor theory of gravity that results in the manifold structure of the universe being non-orientable is not physically acceptable.
KevinScharp wrote:
Examples?
The paper I linked you to, especially the last part which examines the causal structure of Maxwell's equations.
KevinScharp wrote:
Look at the paper I cited.
Then we have a serious problem, because according to the paper I cited, M
…Theoretical Philosophy » William Lane Craig and Kevin Scharp | Is There Evidence for God? » 4/22/2016 8:22 am |
KevinScharp wrote:
The problem is that armchair reasoning about causation is completely unreliable because cause and effect are two very old and imprecise concepts.
The concept of causation is old indeed, but it is not at all imprecise. The Kramers–Kronig relations imply that in physical systems causality is logically equivalent to stating the analyticity of response functions in the closed upper half plane.
KevinScharp wrote:
Trying to uncritically use the concepts of cause and effect in the context of general relativity and quantum field theory would be like if Aristotle were transported to a contemporary chemistry conference and complained that fire isn’t on the periodic table. “Don’t you believe in fire?” “Yes, we do, but we just don’t think it’s fundamental any more.”
This flies in the face of modern philosophy of science. Let me put it to you like this: if causality could be "reduced" to something more fundamental, then we no longer need to replicate scientific experiments, as we could simply build equipment that detects the "particles of causality" and prove induction right then and there.
KevinScharp wrote:
Causation is not a conceptual tool of advanced scientific theories.
Except that it absolutely is a tool of advanced scientific theories. This statement is flat out false. The opposite of truth.
KevinScharp wrote:
For example, in the statement of Quantum Mechanics, the word ‘cause’ doesn't appear at all, nor does it in the statement of general relativity.
However, the Kramers–Kronig relations do appear in quantum mechanics when it comes to determining the properties of any linear response function, such as that of an photon, and can even be used to calculate optical properties such as the absorption coefficient and permittivity.
KevinScharp wrote:
General relativity works the same way by applying tensor fields—a kind of mathem
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Theoretical Philosophy » Why Four Causes? » 4/20/2016 7:58 pm |
Jean65 wrote:
I don't know if he provides a proof that this description is completely exhaustive. But there are proofs that shows that there are at least 4 aspects of causation that are needed to be considered.
The necessity of the 4 causes depends on the reflection we can build upon the concept of change and what is included by this concept, ie what it is to change. I think you know you cannot have more (or less) than 4 causes when you've said everything that is necessary to grasp causation.
I would be interested in seeing such proofs if possible.
Theoretical Philosophy » Why Four Causes? » 4/20/2016 4:42 pm |
Aristotle breaks down causality into four fundamental causes: efficient causality, material causality, formal causality, and final causality. However, does he provide a proof that these four causes completely and exhaustively cover all forms of causality? It's okay when mathematicians speak of the five Platonic solids, or the seventeen tiling of the plane, because mathematicians have provided a valid proof that there are only five Platonic solids and only seventeen tilling groups of the plane. However, I am unaware of any proof that these four fundamental causes are the complete, exhaustive, and only causes.
Theoretical Philosophy » William Lane Craig and Kevin Scharp | Is There Evidence for God? » 4/18/2016 6:43 pm |
iwpoe wrote:
I was involved in my childhood with some conflict about human bodily resurrection, which is the only reason I wanted to make the distinction. If you think the coming resurrection isn't bodily then Christ's isn't going to be troubling, but if you do, then his ascension better not be the making of the Godhead into some kind of matter.
But yeah, if you want to talk about Nietzsche and "God on the cross" I can talk at length.
Most Christians in the USA today think that the relationship of the divine nature to the human nature of Christ is something like God taking a human body "just like a glove takes a hand," but this is Apollonarianism, and if you believe it you're technically not a Christian. Christians believe in the Hypostatic Union, which is that one person (Jesus Chirst) has two natures (divine and human) and that these two natures are in some way "married." The marriage metaphor is used extensively in the writings of Paul.