Classical Theism, Philosophy, and Religion Forum

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5/05/2018 7:55 pm  #1

An infinite universe with a prior cause?

I read in a blog called "A bagful of Insights" that even if the universe were infinite it would still require a cause, and if I'm understanding it correctly that the universe could also have a prior cause even if infinite. I can't wrap my head around an infinite anything having a prior cause and would love to read some thoughts and clarification on it from members. Here are the relevant quotes:

"In fact, as some philosophers have pointed out (e.g., Edward Feser), he (Aquinas) didn’t think that the temporal beginning of the universe was something that could be demonstrated philosophically – and argued that it would still require a cause, even if it were itself infinite."

"Oderberg asserts that even if (say) the universe were eternal, and had no beginning, it certainly does not preclude the possibility of a first member, the existence of which is metaphysically necessary – not to mention metaphysically (as opposed to temporally) prior – for the existence of such a universe." 


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