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seigneur wrote:
[I]f there are immaterial substances, then how are they accounted for?
Aquinas rejected universal hylemorphism and accounted for spiritual substances by his famous "real distinction" (adopted from Avicenna) between esse and essentia: the form of a spiritual substances is in potency to the substance's existence, and the substance itself is not just a form but a compound of the form and the act of existence to which that form is conjoined.
(Some other Scholastics were universal hylemorphists and did think spiritual substances were form/matter composites; they just thought such substances were made of "spiritual matter" rather than "corporeal matter." Obviously they didn't think spiritual substances were just forms either.)
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(That should be "the form of a spiritual substance," not "substances." There's a technical problem editing my post and I'm not going to rewrite the entire thing just for that correction.)
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John West wrote:
(presumably the form still couldn't exist independently of a substance even if for Aquinas matter isn't involved, which is what Scott would mean in calling the form an intellectual abstraction in relation to angels. I'm sure he'll correct if I have him wrong.)
Nope, that's right. Although Aquinas did sometimes refer to spiritual substances as "self-subsistent forms," the elaboration to which I linked above spells out his full view: that a spiritual substance is a compound of essence and existence in which the form stands in potency to the substance's existence.
And again, of course, forms subsist in the divine intellect; moreover, once a substance exists, its form is real as a component of the substance -- just not as an independent "thing" in its own right. We arrive at "just form" through an act of intellectual abstraction, but what we're abstracting it from is really there.
Last edited by Scott (8/13/2015 9:56 pm)
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John West wrote:
There's a distinction between the corporeal and matter that you're not making.
But the distinction is yours to make, inasmuch as A-T (as you understand it) is your position. I only ask questions about it. To me "corporeal" and "matter" are identical and that's why I ask.
John West wrote:
...the form is ontologically dependent on the matter, and the matter is ontologically dependent on the form. The form can't exist apart from matter, nor matter apart from a form.
Mutually dependent but not identical would mean opposites like black and white. And if neither is superior to the other (which should be the case when you say "A can't exist apart from B nor B apart from A" just like black and white), then this is a totally unrecognisable theory of forms to me, and forms in such a theory are not causes in any way.
John West wrote:
There's no replying to a sneer.
So, you don't think I am asking in good faith? In that case I have no further questions.
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A couple clarifications. First, I'm not a Thomist. I just give a lot of Thomist answers to questions about Thomism, because people ask a lot of questions about Thomism. Also, here's the quote (and generally unhelpful type of assertion) to which I was replying:
seigneur wrote:
So, the form(al cause) is an intellectual abstraction? This doesn't compute to me at all, on several levels. And how is the dichotomy of "corporeal" and "incorporeal" any less abstract and more concrete?
When I wrote:
seigneur wrote:
John West wrote:
There's no replying to a sneer.
So, you don't think I am asking in good faith? In that case I have no further questions.
Not only didn't I think your questions insincere, I've privately vouched for and defended your sincerity with others who did think you insincere. So unless you misunderstood what I was replying to, I don't appreciate this otherwise blatant attempt to poison the well.
Last edited by John West (8/14/2015 6:51 am)
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Scott wrote:
Aquinas rejected universal hylemorphism and accounted for spiritual substances by his famous "real distinction" (adopted from Avicenna) between esse and essentia: the form of a spiritual substances is in potency to the substance's existence, and the substance itself is not just a form but a compound of the form and the act of existence to which that form is conjoined.
In other words, spiritual substance is potency(=form=essence)+act(=existence) rather than form+matter? This is a rather subtle workaround. It prompts the question what Aquinas takes potency to be, so that he can posit it to be the very essence of angels (provided that I am reading you right).
Scott wrote:
(Some other Scholastics were universal hylemorphists and did think spiritual substances were form/matter composites; they just thought such substances were made of "spiritual matter" rather than "corporeal matter." Obviously they didn't think spiritual substances were just forms either.)
This is a given, insofar as they relied on Aristotle. This is precisely where I see metaphysical speculations end up when one accepts Aristotelian theory of forms.
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seigneur wrote:
But the distinction is yours to make, inasmuch as A-T (as you understand it) is your position. I only ask questions about it. To me "corporeal" and "matter" are identical and that's why I ask.
No, Matter is basically that which corresponds to potentiality (of a limited kind) and acts as the principle of individuation – Matter in the quantified/extended sense normally follows on from this, at least in Thomas own view, and is sometimes termed materia secunda or material signata quantitate.
This is admittedly an obscure (though defensible) and technical distinction which most introductory writers on Thomas shy away from.
seigneur wrote:
This is a given, insofar as they relied on Aristotle. This is precisely where I see metaphysical speculations end up when one accepts Aristotelian theory of forms.
I'm not commited to either view but I don't think there is anything prima facia wrong with appeals to 'spiritual matter' in this sense as long as we remember it's a techincal term imported from Aristotelean metaphysics and not an 'exotic' physical substance like aether or something of the kind.
Last edited by DanielCC (8/14/2015 7:41 am)
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seigneur wrote:
In other words, spiritual substance is potency(=form=essence)+act(=existence) rather than form+matter? This is a rather subtle workaround.
It's not a workaround, and there's nothing "rather than" about it. One of Aquinas's best-known claims, for which he famously argued in De Esse et Essentia, is that everything (including of course form/matter composites) is ultimately essence + existence, there being (in all cases except God's) a "real distinction" (à la Ibn Sina) between the two and the former being in potency to the latter. In fact I take this view (as Ed does) to be foundational to his own versions of the Five Ways.
Again, Aquinas was not a universal hylemorphist, and it's pretty fundamental to his outlook that the act/potency distinction is prior to and broader than the form/matter distinction. He accepted Aristotle's form/matter account of material/corporeal/physical reality, but (like any other Christian theologian) he didn't think that was all there was. Neither, of course, did the other Christian theologians who instead preferred to extend the concept of "matter" to include "spiritual matter." And in no case did any of them think a spiritual substance was pure form and nothing but -- nor, therefore, that what survived the death of the human body was just a form rather than a substance (albeit, at least in Aquinas's case, an "incomplete" one).
I think Aquinas has much the better of the argument here; your mileage may vary. But be that as it may, your original objection was surely answered long ago. If you want to discuss the merits (or otherwise) of Aquinas's real distinction, that's probably better done in another thread. Unless Mark has further questions, I'm inclined to take it that his original question about Aquinas has been addressed.
Last edited by Scott (8/14/2015 11:17 am)
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Scott wrote:
But be that as it may, your original objection was surely answered long ago.
My original objection was to the claim that form (and soul) is an intellectual abstraction. I don't think it's been answered except by adding terminological distinctions where there's no material, conceptual or logical difference. Maybe I will ask again some other year.
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seigneur wrote:
My original objection was to the claim that form (and soul) is an intellectual abstraction.
Your original objection was, "If it were true [on Aquinas's view; you specifically told us not to bother about yours] that human form is a mere intellectual abstraction without independent existence, the soul would be non-existent after death," and Ed wouldn't have claimed that "the soul is in a 'radically diminished state' after death."
That objection was answered just as I said it was, and I'll put the answer more bluntly here: you were just wrong that Aquinas couldn't regard a human being as any sort of "substance" after bodily death, because you were just wrong that Aquinas believed every substance to be a composite of form and matter, when even for purely material substances this isn't his fundamental distinction.
That's a rookie error, and one that belies your claim to have "specified" any "problems with the A-T metaphysics." If you don't understand how fundamental Aquinas's real distinction between existence and essence (which he regards as a special case of the distinction between act and potency) is to that metaphysics, as it appears you don't:
seigneur wrote:
I don't think it's been answered except by adding terminological distinctions where there's no material, conceptual or logical difference.
. . . then you're not in any way qualified to identify any such "problems." (Perhaps that's why I can't find any posts in which you've actually spelled any out.)
seigneur wrote:
Maybe I will ask again some other year.
I think that's a good call. In the meantime perhaps you'll learn to recognize an answer when you receive one.
(Again, if there's to be further discussion of not just the content but the merits of Aquinas's views on this subject -- which of course is welcome in and of itself -- I think it's better taken to another thread.)
Last edited by Scott (8/27/2015 10:28 am)