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7/07/2015 4:54 pm  #21


Re: God and Free-Will

John West
This just begs the question. It states that the only way perfect predictivity is possible is if determinism is the case[1 wrote:

. I take it the whole issue here is whether perfect "pre"dictivity entails determinism. It might be okay to claim that it's temporally the case that if God knows q, then necessarily q occurs (well, actually, it's not okay, because God doesn't exist in time in the first place). But there is no reason to hold that this is the logical order (and, as my comment with the formalisms shows, logically we have no problem talking about omniscience without talking about determinism).

Unless what you're trying to ask is whether there is a conflict between free will and divine providence, and human freedom (and it sounds like you are). In that case, I take it Scott's answer is correct and the alleged conflict is based on the notion that every cause necessitates its effect. I take it that a cause brings about its effect, but that there is no obvious reason to assume that it does so with any particular kind of modality[2].
.

I don't see how it begs the question and I do not see any other possible disjunct. It seems that in order for the barometer to correctly predict the weather 100% of the time without being lucky is because it detects the complete cause in the present of the future weather. 

I do not think every cause brings about its effect by necessity. As I stated, I do not think that the will in particular does. But when a cause does not bring about its effect by necessity, the effect cannot be known through knowing the cause. Therefore, if the weather is like this (causes of the weather bring it about albeit not necessarily) then no barometer can be 100% accurate. 

 

7/07/2015 10:06 pm  #22


Re: God and Free-Will

TomD wrote:

I don't see how it begs the question and I do not see any other possible disjunct.

Since the infallible barometer was just a placeholder to illustrate how the possibility of divine foreknowledge without necessitation might look, let's put the analogy aside. The reason I called it question begging is that it's an incomplete disjunction. Let "~" be the "not" operator, "v" be the "or" operator, P be your proposition about luck, and Q be your proposition about God's “fore”knowledge necessitating the occurence of the events He knows. Your argument is P v Q. ~P. ∴, Q.

But from the Law of the Excluded Middle and the inference rule of addition, "If P v Q, then P v Q v ~Q". Hence, given ~P, all that follows is Q v ~Q. But we kinda already knew that. ~Q is what I'm arguing in the first place. So, the reason I called it question begging is that the only way for you to get Q is for you to include (and prove) the premise ~~Q, but that just means all your work is still cut out for you.

 

7/07/2015 10:49 pm  #23


Re: God and Free-Will

Was that just a fancy way to say that:

'Between two given options A & B that aren't shown to be exhaustive, it's either A or B or some hitherto unstated option(s). Tom must show A & B to be exhaustive.'

?


Fighting to the death "the noonday demon" of Acedia.
My Books
It is precisely “values” that are the powerless and threadbare mask of the objectification of beings, an objectification that has become flat and devoid of background. No one dies for mere values.
~Martin Heidegger
 

7/07/2015 10:50 pm  #24


Re: God and Free-Will

No, it was a fancy way to explain why I wrote: "That just begs the question." You're right, however, that it's also true he has let abductive reasoning into his argument, and thereby lacks deductive certainty in his chain of inference. It's a bit odd, when I'm proposing a third way incompatible with one of the listed, to write, "P or Q" and these are the only two possible ways. I suppose I could have written it as "P or Q or R, but not both Q and R", or just that the second implicit premise "and there are no other possible ways" baldly asserts what I'm arguing is false and needs support like you say, or something else like that. But I take it that what I'm saying is effectively the negative of what he's saying, or at least includes it.

But I don't really care about that. I was just explaining why I wrote he begged the question. As I wrote before, I take it what he's really after here is the view that there is a conflict between omniscience and divine providence, and human freedom. The view that there is a conflict between mere omniscience and human freedom is based on a misplaced necessity operator, or the view that God exists in time (and classical theists hold God does not exist in time). In my initial comment, I just wanted to get the distinction between predictivity and necessitation out of the way before (I thought) getting to issues related to divine providence and contingent causation.

Last edited by John West (7/08/2015 12:19 am)

 

7/08/2015 2:07 am  #25


Re: God and Free-Will

But his problem is, at the very least, a conceptual one if not a problem of metaphysical understanding outright, not merely a formal one. Tom can *see* no way in which infallible knowledge of future action could be possible without determination somewhere (be it by the knower or some set of things known by the knower), and he wants to be shown the way out. Scott points to a causation that brings about its effect but doesn't necessitate it. However, it's very hard to see if that account ultimately works. In what sense do I say I know I'll never order the steak with mushrooms other than to say it can't be otherwise for me because my psychology compels it, but if my psychology doesn't compel me, in what sense can I really say that I know I'll never order it? It's very hard to see how that's supposed to work. Because when I'm listing off reasons I know I won't choose to smoke I understand myself as giving determiners of a kind, and if I turn out wrong I usually think that I was simply wrong about either my psychology or about the strength of the preference.

Edit: Started post before your edit.

Last edited by iwpoe (7/08/2015 2:10 am)


Fighting to the death "the noonday demon" of Acedia.
My Books
It is precisely “values” that are the powerless and threadbare mask of the objectification of beings, an objectification that has become flat and devoid of background. No one dies for mere values.
~Martin Heidegger
 

7/08/2015 8:07 am  #26


Re: God and Free-Will

iwpoe wrote:

However, it's very hard to see if that account ultimately works. In what sense do I say I know I'll never order the steak with mushrooms other than to say it can't be otherwise for me because my psychology compels it, but if my psychology doesn't compel me, in what sense can I really say that I know I'll never order it? .

I take it contingent causation is when a cause brings about an effect only sometimes, sometimes it does not. The issue with Scott's mushrooms isn't, I think, necessary to the conversation. It was a great example when he gave it to me, but it probably had unecessary features for our purposes in this discussion here.

But we could use a modal system that allows for accessibility relations (say, S4, or something), and say that Scott does not eat the mushrooms in every possible world to which he has epistemic access, but that there might be other worlds to which he lacks such access where he does eat mushrooms.

The problem arises, of course, as to whether Scott here and mushroom-eating Scott here would really be the same Scott (ie. the "problem of transworld identity"). But I don't think we need to get into that for this discussion, unless someone else wants. It would just needlessly complicate the discussion.
 

Last edited by John West (7/08/2015 8:10 am)

 

7/08/2015 8:28 am  #27


Re: God and Free-Will

John West wrote:

=13pxI take it contingent causation is when a cause brings about an effect only sometimes, sometimes it does not. The issue with Scott's mushrooms isn't, I think, necessary to the conversation. It was a great example when he gave it to me, but it probably had unecessary features for our purposes in this discussion here.

Sure, but the point of giving an example is to try and cash this notion out in something familiar. We can make all kinds of intellectual constructs and call them A-Causation, B-Causation, C-Causation, & etc. The point is to *see* some not make them for the sake of articulating an argument.

=13pxIt's hard for me to *see* how contingent causation and knowledge are supposed to interact. In what sense could God foreknow a cause/effect relation that's *ontologically* contingent? God knows which effect *will* happen; he doesn't know which *may* happen. Does he know this on the basis of magic (for no reason at all)? If not, then does he know on the basis of knowing some determinant of the ultimate final effect? But it that's so, then the relationship isn't contingent, but rather determined,

John West wrote:

But we could use a modal system that allows for accessibility relations (say, S4, or something), and say that Scott does not eat the mushrooms in every possible world to which he has epistemic access, but that there might be other worlds to which he lacks such access where he does eat mushrooms.

I think you lost me. Would that be an ontological aspect of the cause or an epistimological aspect of our ability to know possible worlds?

John West wrote:

The problem arises, of course, as to whether Scott here and mushroom-eating Scott here would really be the same Scott (ie. the "problem of transworld identity"). But I don't think we need to get into that for this discussion, unless someone else wants. It would just needlessly complicate the discussion.

I'm more concerned about possible worlds notions of necessity, at least in this context, but that's also needlessly far afield.


Fighting to the death "the noonday demon" of Acedia.
My Books
It is precisely “values” that are the powerless and threadbare mask of the objectification of beings, an objectification that has become flat and devoid of background. No one dies for mere values.
~Martin Heidegger
 

7/08/2015 9:00 am  #28


Re: God and Free-Will

iwpoe wrote:

Sure, but the point of giving an example is to try and cash this notion out in something familiar. We can make all kinds of intellectual constructs and call them A-Causation, B-Causation, C-Causation, & etc. The point is to *see* some not make them for the sake of articulating an argument.

Some people find that by abstracting away the specific details the essence of the issue becomes clearer and easier to see. Though, of course, that only works with propositional logic if the people involved are sufficiently familiar with propositional logic. 

But actually, I meant that it might have been better to use a different example. 

iwpoe wrote:

It's hard for me to *see* how contingent causation and knowledge are supposed to interact. In what sense could God foreknow a cause/effect relation that's *ontologically* contingent?

The problem here is still the word foreknow (and, later, "will"). It implicitly presumes a temporal deity (that's why I kept putting “fore” in scare quotes). But since God exists outside of time, He doesn't foreknow, He just knows. 

iwpoe wrote:

I think you lost me. Would that be an ontological aspect of the cause or an epistimological aspect of our ability to know possible worlds?

Epistemic. In Thomistic terms, it could be that mushroom hatred is an accidental rather than essential property of Scott, and he just isn't able to imagine it (or, even if it were essential, there could be worlds where he's just ignorant of his mushroom hatred for some reason we can't currently imagine and so orders and eats a few anyway). 

iwpoe wrote:

I'm more concerned about possible worlds notions of necessity, at least in this context, but that's also needlessly far afield.

We might say that it's de re necessary (if it's not de re contingent); or, to use more ordinary terms for here, that it's an essential property of Scott (in any world Scott exists, anyway) if it's not accidental. 

As for the fear about the possible worlds notion of necessity, there is no problem with that in my writing here. The analysis of what is necessary to a Scott is based firmly on an analysis of his essence. If I use possible worlds, I'm just using them as a “tool” to conceptualize issues of essence (or to open up possible discussion about counterfactuals that can't be analyzed purely in terms of essences).

 

7/08/2015 9:21 am  #29


Re: God and Free-Will

John West wrote:

=13pxSome people find that by abstracting away the specific details the essence of the issue becomes clearer and easier to see.

No, I understand that. I get the idea, but I also want to see an instance of what that would actually look like and how it relates to other philosophical notions and whether it can do so coherently.

John West wrote:

The problem here is the word foreknow. It implicitly presumes a temporal deity (that's why I kept putting “fore” in scare quotes). But since God exists outside of time, He doesn't foreknow, He just knows.


Fair, but then I wanted to know how God knows what the contingent cause *does* rather than just what it *may* do.

What does it mean to say that God just know's the effect? Does he know the determinants? Then the cause isn't contingent.

Even if you take the Boethian solution, and god simply sees all of time as if at once, the question is if this perspective exists as an object of divine knowledge in what sense is there *in fact* any contingency? It might at least be thought that it has to *be there* at once to be seen. God's knowledge is true knowledge, and ours is in some sense lesser, so one worry might be that any "contingency" is really some kind of illusion of our finitude. But since freedom is not supposed to be an illusion, this is troubling.

John West wrote:

Epistemic. In Thomistic terms, it could be that mushroom hatred is an accidental rather than essential property of Scott, and he just isn't able to imagine it (or, even if it were essential, there could be worlds where he's just ignorant of his mushroom hatred for some reason we can't currently imagine and so orders and eats a few anyway).

I don't know if I've lost you again, but isn't the whole idea of a contingent cause that it be *really* contingent? If we only seem free *as far as we know*, that's hardly satisfying.

John West wrote:

We might say that it's de re necessary if it's not contingent; or, to use more ordinary terms for here, that it's an essential property of Scott (in any world Scott exists, anyway) if it's not accidental. 

As for the fear about the possible worlds notion of necessity, there is no problem with that in my writing here. The analysis of what is necessary to a Scott is based firmly on an analysis of his essence. I'm just using possible worlds as a “tool” to conceptualize it (and also to open up possible discussion about counterfactuals that can't be analyzed in purely in terms of essences).

I'll waive the worry unless it seems to present absurdities.

Last edited by iwpoe (7/08/2015 9:21 am)


Fighting to the death "the noonday demon" of Acedia.
My Books
It is precisely “values” that are the powerless and threadbare mask of the objectification of beings, an objectification that has become flat and devoid of background. No one dies for mere values.
~Martin Heidegger
 

7/08/2015 2:46 pm  #30


Re: God and Free-Will

iwpoe wrote:

Fair, but then I wanted to know how God knows what the contingent cause *does* rather than just what it *may* do.

Well, it either brings about its effect or does not bring about its effect, but it doesn't follow that God can't know whether it brings about its effect without it being the case that it had to bring about its effect, because He's atemporal. 

The mistake here, I think, is that even though you recognize divine timelessness is a factor, you're still thinking (or at least writing) like God's somehow behind the cause trying to calculate what will or won't happen.

iwpoe wrote:

Even if you take the Boethian solution, and god simply sees all of time as if at once, the question is if this perspective exists as an object of divine knowledge in what sense is there *in fact* any contingency? It might at least be thought that it has to *be there* at once to be seen. God's knowledge is true knowledge, and ours is in some sense lesser, so one worry might be that any "contingency" is really some kind of illusion of our finitude. But since freedom is not supposed to be an illusion, this is troubling.

As I wrote before, it doesn't follow that if God knows a fact Q, Q must occur (qLp) [1], only that necessarily, if God knows a fact Q, Q occurs (L(pq)). I tried to give the example with the barometer to help illustrate this point. Unfortunately, barometers operate in time and so it wasn't an ideal analogy.

But I don't have any other, better examples on tap. There may not even be any better examples. We're temporal beings. What is common and ordinary and easy to understand to us is temporal. But if I think of such an example, I'll put it out there. 

iwpoe wrote:

I don't know if I've lost you again, but isn't the whole idea of a contingent cause that it be *really* contingent? If we only seem free *as far as we know*, that's hardly satisfying.

You seem to have lost me. That's okay though. The point about accessibility relations is unimportant for our purposes here. 


[1] The same point could be formalized with an epistemic operator thrown in, but I take it that's unnecessary here. 

 

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