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I've been looking online at mathematical platonism and one argument I saw was the Quine-Putnam argument. I find it very interesting but according Stanford it relies on naturalism which confuses me because doesn't naturalism deny the existence of the immaterial and since mathematical platonism leads to the existence of mathematical objects as abstract and hence immaterial how does this apply coherently?
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Naturalism is a grab-bag position. I'm not sure what is meant in saying it presupposes naturalism in the first case, because if you are correct about it the Platonism would amount to a reductio.
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@iwpoe
Here's the link to the article which explains things better