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@FSC
Well. I see no answers to my #204. :/
Actually, I have answered these questions in various ways, but I will give it a more directed response here.
FrenchySkepticalCatholic wrote:b) Which brings us to my second point. My car is an artifact. If I'm going to have it repaired, I fully expect my car to change overnight.
Right, which is a temporal process, not a hierarchical causal series.
Let's say I have broken brakes : I hope I'll have my car repaired. It'll be a change, but it'll still be my car. How do you account for this?
With a temporal process wherein no new material came into existence or ceased to exist. Material was temporally removed from your car but continued to exist elsewhere. Already existent material was added to your car. The new brake pads and brake fluid did not suddenly materialize out of nothing, nor did the worn brake pads blink out of existence.
FrenchySkepticalCatholic wrote:What's what you call "material"? Atoms? Waves? Particles? Fields?
Everything that exists. Material, as in materialist.
FrenchySkepticalCatholic wrote:C.f. last point : that "very rough manner of speaking" is what is key here. Are you saying matter and energy can bounce off each other? Just matter and matter ? Just energy and energy ? What's matter and energy? What do you put behind these words? If matter is energy, why are there two words?
How many words are there for water? Ice, water, steam, vapor, snow...words have etymologies that go back to ancient times
Heard of energy/matter conversion? What is conversion if not change?
Indeed, E=mcc. Conversion is also conservation. Note the absence of any poof term. No material gets in or out
Conversion is a conservative temporal process, Since there is no change in the amount of material during a temporal conversion process there is no call for an existential changer at all, much less a consideration of a regress of existential changers terminating in an existential first changer, a sustainer of existence moment to moment.
A temporal change calls for a temporal changer. To account for an observed temporal change we regress in time, not hierarchically. The temporal regress analysis leads back at least as far as the big bang, and perhaps to a past eternal universe.
In the respects that material stays the same no changer is necessary at all.
In the respects that material changes it changes temporally, so no hierarchical changer is necessary at all.
Thus, the First and Second Ways fail as arguments for the necessity of a hierarchical first changer acting in the present moment to sustain and account for observed motion and existence.
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But surely, even if we break up the table, coaster, and cup into their constituent particles, the position of the particles within the cup is dependent on the position of the particles within the table in a way that the reverse is not true, right?
Why wouldn't the reverse be just as validly the case? Drop a rock, obviously it accelerates to Earth, and I am sure you realize Earth calculably accelerates toward the rock.
The cup, saucer, table, and Earth are all equally the causes and effects of each other. Imagine 4 equal size rocks lined up in space, weakly held to each other by mutual gravitation. Which is the cause and which is the effect?
We are all bodies in space, everything is. It is just that we have a great deal of nearby company here on Earth
Sure, the table isn't the "first mover" because its position is dependent on the floor and the earth and all particles that make them up, but I don't see how considering the particles changes the fact that the particles that make up the cup would accelerate to the floor were it not for the table, whereas the table would not do the same without the cup.
I suppose if we balanced things very carefully we could put the cup on the floor and put the table on top the cup. I don't see how the particular arrangements of such systems argues for a per se causal series at all.
Irrespective of the arrangements and sizes of the bodies in space every such object is in fact a temporal process even though it seems static. What seems like a static positioning of objects is actually a vastly complex temporal process.
Feser, and others, will commonly construct such scinerios, state this cannot go on to infinity, and declare a per se causal series and therefore a first mover and therefore god. This is terribly shortsighted, truncated, and incomplete thinking.
If we wish to discount going to infinity in the present moment we need to go a great deal further than a naked eye examination of 3 ordinary objects. When we continue on with the analysis we always find that our supposed per se causal series is actually a complex temporal series, and we must regress back and back and back in time and space until it becomes apparent the our supposed per se series has become per accidens, and in fact always was per accidens.
At that point we can realize that every apparent per se causal series is in truth a per accidens causal series.
Obviously, this isn't proof of the existence in and of itself, but it would seem to me to be a case of simultaneous causation, which you denied exists.
Things exist over here at the same time things exist over there, but causal influences do not propagate instantaneously. Say you remove the cup from the table, that will change the table. The cup is compressing the table, and when the cup is removed molecules that were under the cup will move, and that will induce motion in adjacent molecules and so forth. That causal influence will propagate through the table over time, not simultaneously throughout the table.
The appearance of a simultaneous causation is due to our human modeling approximations in abstraction. The table is assigned the title of a single thing, and likewise the cup. We imagine the table is causing to cup to not fall to the floor. But if we are going to argue for fundamental structure to look for god we need to cast off these sorts of vastly oversimplified abstractions and realize the causality of the table and cup is spread out over a trillion trillion particles all in a vastly complex mutual causation temporal process. In doing so A-T falls to dust.
Last edited by StardustyPsyche (12/17/2017 12:27 am)
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Why wouldn't the reverse be just as validly the case? Drop a rock, obviously it accelerates to Earth, and I am sure you realize Earth calculably accelerates toward the rock.
Of course. But if I have a table that is one meter tall and a place a cup one meter off the ground with the table between the ground and the cup, the cup will not accelerate to the ground, right? But if there is no table and I place a cup one meter off the ground, the cup will accelerate to the ground. If a cup is placed on a table, the cup's position is dependent on the table, but other than the imperceptible compression of the table, the table's position is not dependent on the cup.
The cup, saucer, table, and Earth are all equally the causes and effects of each other. Imagine 4 equal size rock lined up in space, weakly held to each other by mutual gravitation. Which is the cause and which is the effect?
That a cause and effect are the same event from viewed different perspectives is a tenet of A-T philosophy.
I suppose if we balanced things very carefully we could put the cup on the floor and put the table on top the cup. I don't see how the particular arrangements of such systems argues for a per se causal series at all.
If Books 1, 2, and three are stacked on top of each other with 1 on the bottom and 3 on top, then the position of book 3 is dependent on books 1 & 2 in a way that the position of book 1 is not dependent on the positions of the other two. If we reverse it, so that Book 3 is on the bottom, then Book 3 is the one whose position is not dependent on the other two. I am having trouble seeing why you are even disputing this.
I am more sympathetic to your viewpoint than most here, and I think you may be right that inertia is fatal to the first way, but I don't think your argument against the existence of causes per se is as strong as you seem to think.
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@ArmandoAlvarez
If a cup is placed on a table, the cup's position is dependent on the table, but other than the imperceptible compression of the table, the table's position is not dependent on the cup.
So, except for the ways that the cup does exert causal influence on the table the cup does not exert causal influence on the table.
This is an illustration of the pitfalls of naked eye observations and simplified abstract models. They are close enough approximations for ordinary activities to proceed, but they become logically and analytically invalid upon closer examination.
I don't think your argument against the existence of causes per se is as strong as you seem to think.
The argument is strong when carefully examined, but I have yet to find words I am satisfied with to communicate this point. It is not an easy task to argue against something that is so intuitive in our lives. Aristotelian physics did not dominate for 2000 years because people just like to believe stupid things. Aristotelian physics just seems to make so much sense in our ordinary experience that it took 2000 years, a very long time, with many brilliant people earnestly working the problems, until at long last the errors of Aristotle were exposed.
Even so, Aristotelian physics still seems to make so much sense, seems to be so intuitively true, so in keeping with our naked eye observations, that many people remain utterly convinced that Aristotle was correct all along.
I console myself that I have not yet found the words to convey the error of the notion of per se causal series with the fact that such things required 2000 years to overcome and for many still seem very real. It is no small rhetorical task to counter illusory notions that deeply seated.
You might want to think freshly about what causation even means. Can a large scale object be assigned the title of "cause"? How is that meaningful in relation to the physics of causation?
Let me try another analogy, say a crowd of people, half in red shirts, half in blue shirts that meet in the middle, red on one side, blue on the other side. It is an unruly crowd with everybody pushing and shoving each other. At the line between red and blue they push back and forth, red pushes blue a little back, then blue pushes red a little back. And on and on they go pushing and shoving back and forth, yet the line stays, on average, in the same place.
Is this a process of simultaneous cause and effect throughout the crowd, or this this a complex temporal process that on average results in no big change to the average position of the crowd?
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Please provide the post number where you or anybody else provided a counterexample to the persistence of the amount of mass/energy.
I mean counter examples to your claims about change, This above I show to be irrelevant to the argument. There are many post I engage with your argument , like 188,189,215,153. and even more.
And Notice how bad Your argument against per se causal series above is, it contains zero substance, from nothing you say in comment ever lead to your conclusions "Per se series are illusory" You just assert that. Biggest error is thinking that cup or table are Identical to its parts, and secondly you ignore that all processes within those parts need to be actual "Now" to contribute to overall state of system. So here too you fail to show per se series to be false.
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StardustyPsyche wrote:
@FSC
Actually, I have answered these questions in various ways, but I will give it a more directed response here.
You didn't until now. So, here's my following input in response to your answers, and a guide for your subsequent answers.
StardustyPsyche wrote:
Right, which is a temporal process, not a hierarchical causal series.
<snip>
With a temporal process wherein no new material came into existence or ceased to exist. Material was temporally removed from your car but continued to exist elsewhere. Already existent material was added to your car. The new brake pads and brake fluid did not suddenly materialize out of nothing, nor did the worn brake pads blink out of existence.
i) So, if I get you right, for you, my car is a temporal process, correct? When does it start? When does it end? If I change my brakes, the material of my old brakes and the material of my new brakes is not the same. Do my car exist apart from our minds? I'd take you say no to this, saying that my car is a shorthand for "the blob of matter containing X, Y...".
ii) I agree that no material is added from nothing. Though, the function of the blob of matter called now my car is to be driven, receive fuel, etc. Do you agree that the function changed? Or, if you don't agree, can you state where does the new function comes from?
You're not allowed to just say "it emerged", because that would be just stating "it changed". You are allowed to say "it emerged from ..." and continue your answer.
Everything that exists. Material, as in materialist.
Then I reject that definition. Because you're saying that
a) Everything that exists is material/matter.
b) Matter is everything that exist.
It serves no purpose in our discussion, as it has nothing to compare to; and adding "material" changes nothing to the primitive "exists". Saying "x exists" or "x is material" has no difference.
iii) Though, if I take your definition, how do you distinguish between my car is material and the constituents of my car are material?
How many words are there for water? Ice, water, steam, vapor, snow...words have etymologies that go back to ancient times
That doesn't help your case as it's a false example. Ice refers to "solidified cold water", which is not just water, as it's a qualificative.
I understand you want to blur the lines as much as you can to get away with your free Aquinas is wrong card, but I doubt it will happen.
So, still stands :
iv) Why are there two words for matter and energy ? Is it because they're distinguishable ?
Indeed, E=mcc. Conversion is also conservation. Note the absence of any poof term. No material gets in or out
Conversion is a conservative temporal process, Since there is no change in the amount of material during a temporal conversion process there is no call for an existential changer at all, much less a consideration of a regress of existential changers terminating in an existential first changer, a sustainer of existence moment to moment.
v) Regarding v), does it mean, that, for you, when an electron hits a positron, since (at least) two gamma photon are created, there is no creation, no change and not any single difference? Is it what you are saying ?
vi) Even if the two (or more) photons have exactly the same energy as the couple used to produce them, you're actually saying that nothing has changed? Is it really what you are saying?
Please answer the i, ii, iii, iv, v and vi as close as you can if you want another answer from me.
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@Armando and SDP:
FWIW, acc to Aquinas, a hierarchical causal series is ordered per se to bring about the intentio of the first cause, whether or not the first cause has mind. I've gone into this on other posts and so far I haven't found evidence in Aquinas that we can have causal series ordered per se that are NOT governed by the 'intention' of the first cause.
cf. A. “… in causes ordered per se ... the first cause moves all the mediate causes toward the effect; however in causes ordered per accidens it is the converse, for the effect which is produced per se by the proximate cause is produced per accidens by the first cause, existing apart from its intention." (On the Liber de Causis, 1).
B. “For some things to be ordered per se, it is required that the intention of the first go all the way to the last. For if the first intends to move / aims at moving the second, and its intention does not go further, but the second moves a third, this will be apart from the intention of the first mover. Such an order therefore will be per accidens. It is necessary therefore that the intention of the first mover and orderer, namely, God, proceed not only to some of the entities but all the way to the ultimate/final ones.” (On Separate Substances 15).
It seems to me off the top of my head that as an artifact, the table qua table cannot be the first cause over a hierarchical series of causes. The person setting the table would seem to be the first cause of the table's supporting those particular objects. As an artifact, the table's essence "table" is an accident of the wood. As an artifact, the table is an instrument, and as an instrument, it is by definition a subordinate member of a causal series, not the first member.
As a piece of wood, the table can be considered natural. On that description, the top of the table does prevent the saucer and cup from falling. In A-T physics, that means the table top by force prevents the particles of earth in the crockery's composition from moving by natural motion toward their proper place in the sublunary zone: that is, to Earth, which is at the center. Since the table top itself is prevented from falling to earth by the floor, it's not the first in the series of causes that prevent the earth particles in the crockery (the cup, precisely) to move by natural motion toward earth.
I'm not sure how well your example fits the First Way, though, Armando, since on A-T terms the cup is not in motion, is it? When someone carried it toward the table, it was in motion toward actualizing a location on the table. Now that this location has been actualized, what is the A-T change that it is undergoing? Its earthy parts are being prevented from undergoing their natural motion toward earth, so where is the motion while it's on the table?
Last edited by ficino (12/17/2017 10:32 am)
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@ficino
I don't know much about the original sources, but Feser uses objects that are not in motion to describe a hierarchical series of causes frequently, for example, in Five Proofs. (I only have it on an e-reader, but it's in his discussion of the First Way-there called "The Aristotelian Proof"- and if you have it on an e-reader and search for "hanging" you'll get to the proper section.)
He uses it to show that the series of causation need not be temporal.
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Hi Armando, yes, I've read and heard Feser say such things many times. And I do have his book!
As to "need not be temporal," the gist of what Feser seems to hold now is that in a per se series, the intermediate causes need not all operate "instantaneously," but he still holds that they should operate at least "simultaneously." As I've quoted him before, he makes that distinction on pp. 61-63. He says that events like a chair's being pushed across the floor or a pot's being fashioned on a wheel count as being caused simultaneously with the first cause of the series, tho' not instantaneously. I have not seen him break this down any further. I don't think that the temporality piece need be pressed, but I do think that a regression analysis back into the past is not open to Feser on his own presuppositions. And lots of people seem to think a temporal regression analysis is just what we need to explain a given instance of motion under modern physics.
I think there are two reasons why Feser is comfortable with using objects not in motion as examples of hierarchical series of causes. One reason is OK, one is not.
First, in A-T physics, as you may know, "motion" comprises locomotion, alteration and growth/decay. [I deny that corruption and generation should be considered motions in A-T, but some say they should be.] Aquinas' first example of motion in the First Way is of wood being heated. That's a qualitative change, and I guess we can call it per se in that one of fire's natural properties, since it is by definition hot, is to heat other things, i.e. bring them from potentially hot to actually hot. The fire example is different from your example, though, where there doesn't seem to be an A-T change in the cup.
The second reason I suspect Feser is OK with using things not in motion in examples of motion is because he holds publicly that each of the Five Ways establishes that objects continue in existence only by being sustained in their existence at every moment by a being whose essence is identical with its/His existence. On Feser's account, an argument for God that starts from something's motion morphs into an argument for God from that thing's contingent existence, from its essence's needing an act of existence by which to be actualized in existence at any moment. I do not grant this as a valid interpretation of most of Aquinas' Ways, though I understand that it's a valid interpretation of Feser's own cosmological argument/s.
Last edited by ficino (12/17/2017 1:38 pm)
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@Ficino
Either Feser isn't clear on this issue of instantaneous vs simultaneous series, or I'm misunderstanding him. I'm not even sure Feser is a big fan of using the term "simultaneous" when we get more technically precise about the nature of a causal series ordered per se. On page 63 of Five Proofs he says,
"What makes a causal series hierarchical rather than linear is not simultaneity per se, but rather the fact that all the members in such a series other than the first have their causal power in a derivative or instrumental rather than inherent or "built-in" way. This, is why linear series of causes can in principle extend backward to infinity, while hierarchical series of causes cannot. Since each member of a linear series has is causal power inherently rather than derivatively, there is no need to trace any member's action back to a first member, which imparts to it its power to act. Hence such a series need not have a beginning."
I think this is what ArmandoAlvarez was getting at. Even if cup, desk, and floor can be looked at as matrices of atoms instantiating a specific macro-structure, it's still the case that the matrix of atoms we call the cup continually depends on the matrix of atoms we call the desk for it to remain in its position one meter off the ground. That is, the cup's potential to be one meter of the ground is continually dependent on the desk for its actualization. And, as Feser notes, an absence of temporality is not necessary for a per se causal series. What is necessary is that each secondary member has its causal power in a derivative/instrumental/continually-dependent way. Perhaps this why this discussion with SP has been somewhat unfruitful for both sides of the issue--we need to clearly define what a per se causal series is, how temporality factors into it, why such a series needs a prime mover, and why such a series is fundamentally different than a per accidens series.
I would also like to see someone more knowledgeable of physics than me properly object to this criticism from SP that temporal processes of constituent particles robs the prima facie reality of per se causal series among macro-structures (e.g. the cup, desk, floor).
Last edited by RomanJoe (12/17/2017 3:13 pm)