Posted by Due_Kindheartedness 4/23/2016 6:52 pm | #1 |
Most Christians take the third commandment to have something to do with how you use idiomatic expressions like "Oh my God" or "for God's sake" in your daily speech, but there is absolutely nothing in the Bible that says that this is a sin. In fact, Jacob said something very similar to our "Oh my God" in the original Hebrew when he met his brother Esau and said that he had the "face of God" (Genesis 33:10), and there's nothing indicating that he was rebuked by God for doing so. The third commandment has to do with how you invoke God's name in oaths, and the only time it is dealt with in the New Testament is when Jesus rebuked the Pharisees for how they developed elaborate rules for what constitutes as "swearing" and a "binding oath" to God.
"Matthew 23:16-22" wrote:
"Woe to you, blind guides! You say, 'If anyone swears by the temple, it means nothing; but anyone who swears by the gold of the templeis bound by that oath.' You blind fools! Which is greater: the gold, or the temple that makes the gold sacred? You also say, 'If anyone swears by the altar, it means nothing; but anyone who swears by the gift on the altar is bound by that oath.' You blind men! Which is greater: the gift, or the altar that makes the gift sacred? Therefore, anyone who swears by the altar swears by it and by everything on it. And anyone who swears by the temple swears by it and by the one who dwells in it. And anyone who swears by heaven swears by God's throne and by the one who sits on it."
Much like "breaking the Sabbath," it's not really a sin that a Christian can commit today. (And again, the only time that commandment was dealt with in the New Testament was when the Pharisees were making elaborate rules on what constituted "working" on the Sabbath.)
Last edited by Tomislav Ostojich (4/23/2016 6:54 pm)
Posted by iwpoe 4/23/2016 7:34 pm | #2 |
Well, it's still possible to make a vain promise, though we no longer have the habit of making the oath by way of God's name, save for the occasional "I swear to God!" It's clearly a commandment about not diluting The credibility of God's name, and clearly had more force in a culture that had a hard time enforcing written contracts: someplace with the economy would have largely relied on person-to-person credit, as you sometimes see in very impoverished communities today.
In that context, keeping sacred certain ways of making promises makes a great deal of utilitarian sense. If people keep to the third commandment, then you know that somebody who swears by God is either reliable or taking the risk of blasphemy and punishment on his head. I suspect he also took the risk of literal punishment by the religious Courts though I'm not sure about the history on that.
Last edited by iwpoe (4/24/2016 1:47 am)
Posted by Etzelnik 4/25/2016 12:03 am | #3 |
I guess then that you wouldn't be very interested in a Pharisee's understanding of the commandment, but the Talmud and Maimonides both understand it as needlessly mentioning God's names (such as YHVH) for no good reason.
Re: Jacob; you are reading the verse wrong. The word Elohim means 'a lord', and it's usage in relation to God is merely as a borrowed term. A similar instance is found in Exodus 22: "You shall not revile a judge, and a prince in your nation you shall not curse".
@iwpoe: the penalty for a false oath invoking the name of God was 39 lashes.
Last edited by Etzelnik (4/25/2016 12:05 am)
Posted by Due_Kindheartedness 4/25/2016 1:52 am | #4 |
They still follow this interpretation when they read the MT. The words of "YHWH" are given the vocalization of "Adonai" in homage to the third commandment. However, the context of the Decalogue, both when Moses gave them from Mt. Sinai and in first-century Judaea when there was still a temple, the intended interpretation had to do with sacrifices.
Of course, there is some overlap to how we use God's name in speech, as back then nobody would mention God unless they were going to either expound theology or make an oath.
RE: Jacob, the meaning of any word is determined by context. The whole reason Jacob is making the comparison between his brother's face and "the face of God" is because the latter has connotations of extreme graciousness, and this simile would be lost if "elohim" meant just a generic judge or prince.
Posted by iwpoe 4/25/2016 5:06 am | #5 |
Etzelnik wrote:
@iwpoe: the penalty for a false oath invoking the name of God was 39 lashes.
As is proper.
Posted by Etzelnik 4/25/2016 11:08 pm | #6 |
Tomislav Ostojich wrote:
They still follow this interpretation when they read the MT. The words of "YHWH" are given the vocalization of "Adonai" in homage to the third commandment. However, the context of the Decalogue, both when Moses gave them from Mt. Sinai and in first-century Judaea when there was still a temple, the intended interpretation had to do with sacrifices.
I'm truly curious as to how you arrived at that conclusion, save for the fact that the New Testament only mentions it with reference to the Temple and sacrifices. I ask this because as a Talmudist it is quite clear to me that the traditional interpretation goes back to well before Jesus's time.
RE: Jacob, the meaning of any word is determined by context. The whole reason Jacob is making the comparison between his brother's face and "the face of God" is because the latter has connotations of extreme graciousness, and this simile would be lost if "elohim" meant just a generic judge or prince.
First of all, I always understood the text to mean that Jacob was telling Esau (who, as you will recall, was liege to 400 men) that his visage is as noble as a lord, thus mollifying him with regards to the lost blessing.
Second, even on your own account, Jacob was not invoking God Himself, but was rather referring to Esau as 'Godly'. How are you comparing that to invoking God in vain?
Posted by Jason 4/26/2016 11:21 am | #7 |
I think that the third commandment has a deeper meaning (then swearing) which would come under the two different meanings of the word vain.
Firstly, vain can be used with the meaning of useless which could be interpreted with the fact that taking the name of God uselessly gives out what that person truly thinks of God i.e. there is no reverence for God in them.
Secondly, vain could be interpreted with vanity where a person who is considered among others as a godly person using God’s name in vanity i.e. displaying their "godliness" to people. In both cases I think it shows much about the persons true intentions which is why I think it is part of the commandments.
Last edited by Jason (4/26/2016 11:41 am)
Posted by iwpoe 4/27/2016 3:15 am | #8 |
The English is:
You shall not take the name of the LORD your God in vain, for the LORD will not leave him unpunished who takes His name in vain.
And the Hebrew:
לֹ֥א תִשָּׂ֛א אֶת־שֵֽׁם־יְהוָ֥ה אֱלֹהֶ֖יךָ לַשָּׁ֑וְא כִּ֣י לֹ֤א יְנַקֶּה֙ יְהוָ֔ה אֵ֛ת אֲשֶׁר־יִשָּׂ֥א אֶת־שְׁמֹ֖ו לַשָּֽׁוְא׃ פ
The word 'take' is תִשָּׂ֛א "to lift, carry, bear, take, take away"
The words 'in vain' are לַשָּׁ֑וְא "emptiness, vanity; emptiness of speech, lying"
Jason is quite right that an important aspect could certainly be taking/bearing God's name when one is oneself false. I think Christ thinks about it that way (as usual, he gives a psychologizing interpretation): he thinks that the point is that your own word should be good enough that you don't need to be swearing by God all the time.
Posted by Jason 4/29/2016 3:12 pm | #9 |
Thanks for the Hebrew verse iwpoe. I always wondered about it.