Scott on PSR

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Posted by RomanJoe
11/05/2017 10:29 pm
#1

I've been going through some older posts on Feser's blog and found this comment from Scott on Feser's 'Could a theist deny PSR?' post:

"I haven't thought this though completely, but it does seem that even if it were admitted arguendo that there might be some brute facts, the classical theist could argue to God as long as there was at least one fact that was not brute. Then, having established the existence of God, the classical theist could turn around and argue that no facts can be "brute" after all."

I think he's on to something here. I've also been toying with the idea that--given a Thomistic metaphysics--a chain of existent beings, each being deriving its existence from a preceding member, that ultimately terminates in a brute fact would entail that from moment to moment every being is conserved in existence by ultimately nothing. On this view, then, 'ex nihilo nihil fit'  holds, in the last analysis, for no being.

Any thoughts?

 
Posted by Camoden
11/06/2017 2:19 pm
#2

IMO Garrigou-Lagrange was right to distinguish between the internal, being the principle of identity applied to a particular essence taken of itself,  and the external PSR, just being efficient causation. With this in mind, it sort of becomes obvious the theistic implication. 

 
Posted by UGADawg
11/09/2017 2:12 am
#3

@ RJ, I'm not sure that's right. If PSR is false, the causal principles behind hierarchical causal series are suspect, e.g. potentials could possibly be actualized without anything doing the actualizing. So you could, in principle, just pick out any entity composed of act / potency to terminate the causal series.

 
Posted by ficino
11/09/2017 7:49 am
#4

UGADawg wrote:

If PSR is false, the causal principles behind hierarchical causal series are suspect, e.g. potentials could possibly be actualized without anything doing the actualizing. So you could, in principle, just pick out any entity composed of act / potency to terminate the causal series.

I don't see how "possibly be actualized without anything doing the actualizing" coheres with "any entity composed of act / potency". An entity that is actual with respect to the species of change but perhaps potential in some other respect would be "doing the actualizing," wouldn't it? 

Or do you mean that we have a dichotomy: either a first cause that is purely actual, in all respects, or no causality?  That doesn't square with what you say about picking out any entity partly actual partly potential to terminate the causal series.
 

Last edited by ficino (11/09/2017 7:50 am)

 
Posted by UGADawg
11/10/2017 6:29 pm
#5

No, I just mean if PSR is false, then there is no necessary need for an explanation. So, for any actualized potential, it's not necessarily the case that something external to it actualizes it; it could just be a brute fact. Therefore a hierarchical causal series need not terminate in something that is purely actual.

 
Posted by ficino
11/10/2017 8:50 pm
#6

What to do with the PSR is a big question. A while ago, a poster named Tyler was propounding the argument made by Keith Parsons in his debate with Feser. Parsons maintained that we have no assurance that our cognitive faculties aren't deceiving us. So we have no assurance that what we think is the sufficient reason in any particular case is the sufficient reason. So everyone is in the same boat, whatever we think about the PSR. I don't recall anyone actually refuting this.

I think if you want to go further down the path you're pointing to, UGADawg, you may want to drop the language of potentiality and actuality. If the PSR is false, then I would think a hierarchical causal series falls with it, since we couldn't establish the "end" toward which the whole series is ordained/oriented, could we? If the PSR is false, I don't see where something purely actual actualizing a potential is even going to be a requirement of any explanation of change. We'll be left with something like Pragmatism, maybe. And that's fruitful in its own way.

 

Last edited by ficino (11/10/2017 8:52 pm)

 
Posted by RomanJoe
11/11/2017 12:07 am
#7

Have any of you read Lagrange's or Scott Sullivan's critique of ~PSR?
They claim that everything in being has a reason for its existence insofar as its act of existence is the reason why it can be distinguished from nothingness or possible existence--like Camoden mentioned, the difference between internal and external sufficient reasons.

 
Posted by ficino
11/11/2017 5:25 am
#8

I am probably misunderstanding De Esse et Essentia, but I cannot help thinking that talk of things, some of which make acts of existence and some of which do not, is incoherent. 

RomanJoe, when you say that its act of existence is the reason why a being can be distinguished from nothingness or possible existence, I think you're speaking imprecisely. Do you mean, "why a being can be distinguished from a being that does not exist, or from a being that exists in some possible worlds but not in the actual world"? 

It seems to me that we wind up with positions like "Egyptian Socrates and Athenian Socrates differ in that Athenian Socrates was granted an act of existence, but Egyptian Socrates was not granted an act of existence." This seems very unfruitful to me. It really shows up in Aquinas' discussion of immaterial substances, where the substance serves as the analogue of matter, and the act of existence does the work of form. A substance exists by definition. It's just duplication to say that a substance goes on to make an act of existence. There are no substances that don't exist.

Are there some things in being that DON"T make an act of existence? How is it not trivially true to say that a being's reason for existing is its existence?

 
Posted by UGADawg
11/11/2017 11:49 pm
#9

Ficino,

What Sullivan and RGL mean is that the act of existence (esse) is that in virtue of which something is distinguished from nonbeing. So (they argue) anything that exists necessarily has esse (otherwise it is indistinguishable from nonbeing, and therefore is nonbeing). Then they argue esse can be interpreted as a reason for something's existence, which they take to show PSR is a necessary truth derivable from PNC.

If you find it odd to talk about esse being that in virtue of which an extant chair (or whatever) is distinguished from a nonexistent chair, you can always think of it in terms of an actual chair vs a merely potential chair. IIRC, as Sullivan put it, you can add all the potential properties to something you like (e.g. potential height, potential color, potential structure, etc.) but unless you add something that makes those properties actual rather than merely potential (i.e. esse), you're not talking about anything that actually exists.

It's an interesting argument that I think deserves some serious consideration, even though Feser seems fairly dismissive of attempts to derive PSR from PNC. Dennis Bonnette gives a similar argument for PSR here (see the comments there for additional discussion).

 
Posted by RomanJoe
11/12/2017 7:44 pm
#10

I'd need to brush up on RGL again but could one still hold to ~PSR by admitting that every being needs an act of existence to explain its distinction from nothing, but that said act of existence could itself be a brute fact?

 


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