I don't think Aquinas is a compatibilist. It's very clear that in thomistic metaphysics the will is never determined towards any finite good. If the will is not determined towards either X or Y, how can he be a compatibilist? The will is always ordered towards the good and indeed can't help but desire what is good, but the will is not determined towards finite goods, because by their very nature, finite goods always have deficiencies in them that repel the will (different from what happens with an infinite good, in which we can't help but be determinately attracted to).
I believe in libertarian free will, anyway.