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Theoretical Philosophy » What are the best responses to Kant's transcendental idealism? » 7/02/2018 5:43 pm

Miguel
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John West wrote:

Miguel wrote:

It doesn't matter that mathematics starts by sweeping aside skeptical problems; the point of the analogy is that we can believe certain principles on the basis of self-evidence, and the fact that a lot of very smart people might doubt those same principles are not a reason to reject or suspend judgment about them.

It is, I think, if they're competent practitioners (see the definition here). It also is if there is a rationally undecided dispute between them (see the definition of rationally decided here). I hope, in the latter case, that you're not seriously suggesting that the dialectical situation with the PSR is the same as with the LEM.

It does matter, by the way. The mathematicians aren't concerned with the ultimate epistemic grounds of their principles, and their disputes reflect that. They're concerned with the roles their axioms play in mathematics.

 
I disagree, then. And I was just making an analogy with LEM; I would not doubt it even if all mathematicians were to give up on it tomorrow. I just can't.

I don't think it matters for my purposes. Very smart people may dispute PSR, but it it still self-evident to me. It doesn't take away the self-evidence or epistemic rights of those who accept PSR as self-evident, just like with LEM and the very smart mathematicians who reject it. In this case I agree 100% with Pruss.

It's not even a matter of choice, as I can't just choose to suspend judgment about something that is obviously true to me. I can't suspend judgment about LEM. And I can't suspend judgment about PSR, I really can't. "Freak happenings" to me are impossible and make no sense whatsoever. It's like magic to me. If this makes it "dogma", then dogma it is.

Theoretical Philosophy » What are the best responses to Kant's transcendental idealism? » 7/02/2018 5:13 pm

Miguel
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John West wrote:

It doesn't take away the legitimacy of self-evidence. Pruss also writes a bunch on this very topic in his book on PSR

The notion of self-evidence you're using stinks of dogmatism. I think there is an acceptable notion of self-evidence, but for reasons already indicated I don't think it's this (the traditional) one.

We (at least I do) take LEM to be self-evident even though there are some brilliant mathematicians who reject it. Should this fact take away LEM's self-evidence for those who find it self-evident? I don't think so.

Mathematics is a dogmatic discipline. It starts by sweeping aside all the skeptical problems of philosophers, so that it can focus on mathematical problems. But a traditional problem for mathematical axioms is that they're bare assertions and, so, by definition, no stronger than any other bare assertion.

(I actually do consider the law of the excluded middle to be apodictic in the acceptable sense I mentioned. I, however, can't see how to ground the PSR the same way.)

 
It doesn't matter that mathematics starts by sweeping aside skeptical problems; the point of the analogy is that we can believe certain principles on the basis of self-evidence, and the fact that a lot of very smart people might doubt those same principles are not a reason to reject or suspend judgment about them. We are well in our epistemic rights to take LEM to be self-evident, but many brilliant intuitionist mathematicians reject LEM. Should you abandon your belief in LEM as apodictic and self-evident? No.
Like Leibniz, I consider PSR as self-evident as well. In understanding it, I cannot reject it. It is true. The fact that it might "stink" of dogmatism to you doesn't make it any less obvious to me that there can be no contingent things existing with no explanation whatsoever, and no contingent facts holding with no explanation and for no reason whatsoever.

Theoretical Philosophy » What are the best responses to Kant's transcendental idealism? » 7/02/2018 5:07 pm

Miguel
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John West wrote:

Miguel wrote:

"Any argument that is circular" like what? Perhaps I'm not understanding you. As I said, I take most arguments for PSR to be formulated like a dilemma. IBE is a great example. Is IBE justifiable without presupposing PSR as a metaphysical principle?

You might have lost the thread of the conversation. You wrote:

I think technically one might be able to construct arguments without assuming PSR, at least on the surface, but I'm not entirely sure if there's no assumption of PSR behind everything (for instance, it could be that appeals to principle of indifference, so common in many arguments, actually presuppose PSR).

I started my circularity argument: “Suppose it's true”, and meant “Suppose it's true that there is an assumption of PSR behind everything.

 
But if there is, then that's part of the dilemma. Abandon PSR and lose "everything" is not an option someone should want to take. If, however, this is wrong, then the arguments (like the IBE one) are not circular.

Theoretical Philosophy » What are the best responses to Kant's transcendental idealism? » 7/02/2018 4:05 pm

Miguel
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John West wrote:

I realize the bad conotations of the word "magic", but I think it's appropriate.

Let's put aside the hyperbolic “magic” and just talk about what we're talking about: brute facts. If I suspend judgment over the metaphysical significance of the PSR, I thereby suspend judgment over the existence of brute facts. (It's not some additional act. It's the same and justified the same as the previous.) The PSR just is the claim that there are no brute facts over some domain.

If you think a contingent thing can really exist with no explanation whatsoever, well, that's you. I know I can't bring myself to reject PSR as a metaphysical principle, or suspend judgment.

Me and a lot of the most brilliant philosophers through time and space (which, of course, points to a traditional problem with making metaphysical judgments on the back of truths about one's self).

 
Yes, and a lot of the most brilliant philosophers through time and space thought it *self-evident* that no contingent thing can exist without any explanation. Aquinas, Leibniz, Clarke, Spinoza and more are not bad company to be with. They'd take it as absurd that anyone could even suspend judgment about this issue.

It doesn't take away the legitimacy of self-evidence. Pruss also writes a bunch on this very topic in his book on PSR.

We (at least I do) take LEM to be self-evident even though there are some brilliant mathematicians who reject it. Should this fact take away LEM's self-evidence for those who find it self-evident? I don't think so.

Theoretical Philosophy » What are the best responses to Kant's transcendental idealism? » 7/02/2018 3:56 pm

Miguel
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"I confess that after rejecting the two stronger versions of the PSR, I'm starting to wonder whether there isn't something even weaker, that doesn't lead to the conclusions you would like, that I should be looking for, though."

Like what? I've tinkered with many alternative principles over notes and arguments, and the best bets I could come up with were some modal principles of the sort "everything that can have an explanation, has an explanation". So if someone has independent reason for thinking there can be no explanation for the existence of contingent beings, they can avoid that and still maintain some level of metaphysical explicability in the world.

But such a principle would face many problems. One is the issue of how to account for local chance/order without admitting of general, cosmic chance/order (as Pruss argues in his article on probability and PSR); another is the arguments of modal uniformity by Rasmussen; other general problems would be the fact that the principle would have less explanatory power, by all its applications it should entail that nothing should exist; also the problem of persistence, etc.

There is also Kleinschmidt's proposal in "reasoning without the principle of sufficient reason" but it's insufficient to justify our predilections for explanations in many cases, and I think it'd also fall prey to the above issues.

Theoretical Philosophy » What are the best responses to Kant's transcendental idealism? » 7/02/2018 3:32 pm

Miguel
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John West wrote:

Miguel wrote:

It's not the "circular" proof that is probative; the argument would stand on its own. It's an inference to the best explanation. What is assumed is that IBE is a legitimate form of argument. If, however, it turns out that IBE depends on PSR - and I think it does - then it would be circular.

Inferences to the best explanation aren't probative by definition. I'm, however, talking about any argument that is circular, whether it's a proof or not, if the PSR has the status we're supposing it does for the sake of conversation.

And I don't mean to insult with the word "magic", just convey how it seems to me in the context of PSR's self-evidence. After all, magic is basically a rejection of PSR and PPC; that a small wooden wand can somehow produce huge thunders and fireballs, a surplus effect coming from nowhere, etc.

What you're doing, whether you realize it or not, is relying on caricatures and hyperbole to make your case seem more plausible than it is. Is it really so implausible that, in our universe, there might be freak happenings? (If we have to take the PSR as a transcendental presupposition, that more or less explains why we don't experience any.) I don't think it is.

 
I realize the bad conotations of the word "magic", but I think it's appropriate. If it seems bad to accept something like "I suspend judgment about magic", I think that's suggestive of a tacit acceptance of PSR (or at least an inclination in its favor). Calling them "freak happenings" instead of magic doesn't make them any less bad; a contingent thing cannot exist without a sufficient reason, and an effect cannot be greater than its cause. I do find it completely absurd, and if I didn't, I'd have no serious objection to magic. And I'm talking metaphysics. If you think a contingent thing can really exist with no explanation whatsoever, well, that's you. I know I can't bring myself to reject PSR as a metaphysical principle, or susp

Theoretical Philosophy » What are the best responses to Kant's transcendental idealism? » 7/02/2018 3:21 pm

Miguel
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John West wrote:

Anyway, it doesn't matter. I actually think the questionable premise in the accidental property objection apodictic. I have a clear sense of what I mean by that, too, and it's probably not the same as what you mean by self-evident.

I don't think the impossibility of freak happenings (or, perhaps, coincidences) apodictic. (In fact, I think there are arguments for some kinds of brute facts. I made one of them in a post to UGADawg right after I got back a few months ago.)

 
I agree with the libertarian free will response to your argument.

I don't think so-called coincidences pose problems for strong PSR and I take strong PSR to be self-evident, but I think it's also important to keep in mind a difference between full blown PSR and a principle that requires explanations for the existence of contingent things. I think every contingent fact needs explanations, but someone who doubts that may still find reason (even of self-evidence) to accept a limited PSR. While someone may think there may be no sufficient reason for some contingent acts, they can still accept (even as self-evident) that no contingent thing can exist, let alone remain in existence, without a sufficient reason.

If someone thinks the accidental properties objection really is unimpeachable, perhaps they can doubt the classical theism inference rather than suspend judgment about brute facts. It would be another strategy. Though I don't see it as promising either, so I understand.

Theoretical Philosophy » What are the best responses to Kant's transcendental idealism? » 7/02/2018 12:51 pm

Miguel
Replies: 56

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And I don't mean to insult with the word "magic", just convey how it seems to me in the context of PSR's self-evidence. After all, magic is basically a rejection of PSR and PPC; that a small wooden wand can somehow produce huge thunders and fireballs, a surplus effect coming from nowhere, etc. That a voodoo doll somehow links with another person, and its being pinched will result in the person being pinched, etc. The more cannot proceed from the lesser; ex nihilo nihil fit; no contingent fact can obtain without a sufficient reason; these are all related to each other.

I am reminded, Feser wrote a piece on this subject years ago: http://edwardfeser.blogspot.com/2011/10/magic-versus-metaphysics.html

Theoretical Philosophy » What are the best responses to Kant's transcendental idealism? » 7/02/2018 12:31 pm

Miguel
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John West wrote:

Miguel wrote:

As I said, if we cannot argue for PSR (as a necessary metaphysical principle) as the best explanation for our experience because we'd be assuming PSR (as a necessary metaphysical principle) then that is only more reason to accept PSR. The argument is already about PSR as a necessary metaphysical principle and not merely as a transcendental presupposition; one would compare the two proposals and see how they fare with respect to simplicity, explanatory power, etc.

I see. I don't consider circular proofs probative.

The person who suspends judgment over the metaphysical significance of the PSR is epistemically open to magic in a sense those who accept PSR aren't. Of course, the person is free to suspend judgment about magic. All I'm saying is it's legitimate to consider indirect arguments; but I think voodoo magic is less plausible than the accidental properties objection.

I don't. I'm reminded of Armstrong's discussion of how, after publishing his first couple books, he found some people found some of his arguments absolutely jaw dropping and others worthless, and other people the exact opposite.

Anyway, you already know what I think about this kind of cheap rhetoric. I have work I should be doing.

It's not the "circular" proof that is probative; the argument would stand on its own. It's an inference to the best explanation. What is assumed is that IBE is a legitimate form of argument. If, however, it turns out that IBE depends on PSR - and I think it does - then it would be circular. But then we'd have a different reason to accept PSR, one that I think is more powerful: without it, we wouldn't have IBE. If you can justify IBE the way we need it with only a "transcendental PSR", without begging the question, then we can go on to use the IBE argument for PSR as a metaphysical principle: the two proposed ideas would clash, transcendental PSR vs metaphysical PSR, and we'd see which one is simpler, has more e

Theoretical Philosophy » What are the best responses to Kant's transcendental idealism? » 7/02/2018 1:30 am

Miguel
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John West wrote:

Miguel wrote:

This is not a problem; on the contrary, it would only show how fundamental PSR is.

It's a problem if you want to prove that the PSR has a metaphysical significance. You can't prove a principle with a proof that presupposes it.

So? If you *really* find the accidental property objection to be stronger than PSR, then you can have a reason to reject PSR and accept magic.

But this is a straw man. The person who suspends judgment over the metaphysical significance of the PSR and accepts that it has a transcendental significance doesn't thereby “accept magic”.

(I do actually find the accidental property objection convincing. Every premise but one follows from the definition of classical theism, and the intrinsic theory of belief (or some equivalent) premise is as well grounded as anything.)

 
As I said, if we cannot argue for PSR (as a necessary metaphysical principle) as the best explanation for our experience because we'd be assuming PSR (as a necessary metaphysical principle) then that is only more reason to accept PSR. The argument is already about PSR as a necessary metaphysical principle and not merely as a transcendental presupposition; one would compare the two proposals and see how they fare with respect to simplicity, explanatory power, etc.

The person who suspends judgment over the metaphysical significance of the PSR is epistemically open to magic in a sense those who accept PSR aren't. Of course, the person is free to suspend judgment about magic. All I'm saying is it's legitimate to consider indirect arguments; but I think voodoo magic is less plausible than the accidental properties objection

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