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Chit-Chat » Pay for the full version » 8/01/2015 4:31 am

seigneur
Replies: 10

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No need for a paid private forum, seriously. There are reasonable unpaid solutions to obtain whatever benefit you imagine from a private forum:

- email (multiple recipients)
- PM's in this forum allow adding multiple recipients too, don't they?
- Skype (add people to conversation)
- recorded video chat
- if it's really so important, you can even set up a meeting in a pub insofar as you are all in the same country...

Practical Philosophy » Best Arguments Against Same-Sex Marriage » 8/01/2015 3:11 am

seigneur
Replies: 172

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Jeremy Taylor wrote:

I would probably agree, if the state could be radically decentralised and limited. At the moment, the strong social and cultural role of the Western state means it unfortunately matters which family arrangements it supports.

I suggest that the role of the organised state is in direct correlation with the state of the family. The cohesion of the (extended) family has been demolished, atomised, so the government correspondingly can take a firm lead in the matters that could otherwise well be handled by the family.

On the side of pro-gays, I have seen plenty of ultra-feminist/hedonist statements to the effect that family at its very heart, parents in particular, are patriarchal, oppressive (to children and women), working contrary to freedom and happiness (of children and women). As if the govt were somehow more caring...

Theoretical Philosophy » Aristotle and Aquinas' idea of cause and effect » 7/31/2015 11:51 am

seigneur
Replies: 16

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Scott wrote:

seigneur wrote:

There is a type of causes identified by Aquinas, but never mentioned by Feser, as far as I am aware. They are so-called "exemplar causes", a kind of formal causes proceeding from God.

A quick search of Ed's blog will turn up his previous mentions of exemplar causes.

True. But no reply to Koons' article. 

Theoretical Philosophy » Aristotle and Aquinas' idea of cause and effect » 7/31/2015 6:55 am

seigneur
Replies: 16

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DanielCC wrote:

This really deserves its own post but what good will bringing in the Divine Exemplars do for ID?
 

 The article can be found online. I cannot link to it because I don't have enough karma yet.

I mentioned it because it introduces briefly the entire framework of Aristotelian causes and is therefore useful to the opening poster. I personally don't favour Aristotelian causes or ID, so I think that no matter how they justify each other, they are wrong.

Theoretical Philosophy » Aristotle and Aquinas' idea of cause and effect » 7/31/2015 4:08 am

seigneur
Replies: 16

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There is a type of causes identified by Aquinas, but never mentioned by Feser, as far as I am aware. They are so-called "exemplar causes", a kind of formal causes proceeding from God. Exemplar causes are responsible for the procession of creatures and entities in creation.

On some views, exemplar causes enable reconciliation of ID and Thomism.

Robert C. Koons and Logan Paul Gage wrote:

Moreover, this exaggerated focus on secondary causation is also seen in the utter absence of Thomas’s doctrine of exemplar causation—a crucial part of Thomistic metaphysics—in the critics’ writings.

This article, "St. Thomas Aquinas on Intelligent Design" published in Proceedings of the ACPA, Vol. 85, is a criticism of Feser.

Practical Philosophy » Best Arguments Against Same-Sex Marriage » 7/30/2015 3:21 pm

seigneur
Replies: 172

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@iwpoe

I see. We don't disagree much after all. JFYI though, I am not an American and I don't care much about the peculiarities of the American case. It's rather difficult to care, when in much of the rest of the Western world it's already very old news.

iwpoe wrote:

You think that this happened two months ago? And not 22+ years ago when this fight started? It's not the law that did the problem but rather the problem that led to the law.

I'd go even further. Slowly but surely, aspects like parental acceptance, spousal duties, punishable adultery, slow and costly divorce have been historically removed from marriage, making it a matter of whim, a game of enjoyment, bringing the concept of "love" gradually closer to "sex for fun". Right now these two concepts are perfectly synonymous for most people. In the 20's, the decadent gay subculture was briefly wildly popular and influential, foreshadowing the loss of relevance of marriage and its final redefinition by means of gay laws. Hippies and feminists have been intermediate stages in this process.

iwpoe wrote:

"Defending" a "traditional" notion of "marriage" or it's so-called "sanctity" is a fool's errand when even most heterosexuals has clearly long lost any thought out bearing on marriage, traditional or not, and when many had even longer ceased to consider it a sacrament.

Any way I think about it, the political battle was doomed. Marriage could not be salvaged. And now with gay laws instituted, the concept of marriage has been bastardised, akin to the analogies I brought.

I personally prefer meaningful laws, but when people at large already saw marriage as an utterly pointless burden, then the only meaningful thing to do is to do away with the concept altogether and maybe create something like "household" or "cohabitation" in its place, where various "configurations" of people can have some relevant official privileges. Those "configurations" may be sexual or not, as the group deems relevant. The

Practical Philosophy » Best Arguments Against Same-Sex Marriage » 7/30/2015 6:44 am

seigneur
Replies: 172

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iwpoe wrote:

The political fight over gay marriage was, my whole life, cast as some kind of fight over protecting marriage or the sanctity of marriage as such. If the truth is a failure to understand marriage- which is all I've ever been able to make sense of -then this cannot properly speaking be a threat to marriage as such, and the political approach that was defended up until, well, last month, was confusing and wrong.

But you can only properly claim that conservatives (or natural law theorists) fail to understand the truth about marriage, if you yourself know the truth about marriage.

iwpoe wrote:

Surely time should have been spent on the value, goodness, and proper understanding of heterosexual marriages rather than fretting about harm that was to be done to marriage as such.

But (part of) the issue is that marriage as such just is "heterosexual marriage", while "homosexual marriage" is a contradiction in terms, an oxymoron. It's (in part) a definitional issue - a "circular circle" is a tautology, while a "square circle" is a self-contradiction. You can legally grant to squares the "right" to be acknowledged as circles in the name of equal treatment or such, but what sense does it make? It's like granting rights of pregnancy to men.

Meanwhile, there's an evident indirect harm to circles given such legislation. Namely, people will be unable to make the proper distinction between circles and squares; there will be confusion about what circularity properly entails. This will not really change the truth about circularity, but there will be an obvious shockwave of educational damage across the population.  

Practical Philosophy » Best Arguments Against Same-Sex Marriage » 7/29/2015 3:34 am

seigneur
Replies: 172

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iwpoe wrote:

I think it perfectly comprehensible that homosexual couples see their present situation as not sufficiently serious and want to structure it towards something higher. I've never been in such a relationship, so perhaps this is an inherent impossibility, but I do think it's laudable as an attempt.

 FWIW, I also think it comprehensible, even perfectly comprehensible that homosexual couples see their present situation as not sufficiently serious. However, official normalisation of homosexuality by means of legislation is not going to help them to structure their aims towards anything higher. To the contrary, it tears the rest of society down to the unserious level where homosexuals are. This should also be easily comprehensible.

Theoretical Philosophy » Sensation and perceptual error. » 7/28/2015 10:08 am

seigneur
Replies: 4

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Scott wrote:

I think you need to distinguish between sensation (e.g. seeing a red patch in one's visual field and having the feeling of a smooth cool surface in one's fingers) and sensory perception (e.g. perceiving an apple in one's hand).

We don't normally (arguably ever) experience mere isolated sensations (bare "sense data" or "raw feels" with no perceptual "interpretation"), but I think it's clear that a mere sensation can't be mistaken or deceptive. A perception, however, is a judgment (or at least very much like one), and it can be mistaken: we can think we're perceiving an apple when we're not.

This distinction is sometimes relevant indeed. The fact is that the senses are five separate channels. The connection of the channels is a judgement in the mind (conscious or subconscious), not in the senses.

For example, when a dog barks, our eyes see the dog, but they don't hear anything. The ears hear barking, but they don't see anything. Thus, even such a seemingly common-sense thing as a barking dog is a mental judgement with inherent subjectivity. It's not perfectly objective sense-data.

Theoretical Philosophy » What determines your gender? » 7/11/2015 2:03 am

seigneur
Replies: 24

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Jeremy Taylor wrote:

I believe, though I am not completely sure, that the popularity of gender as a substitute for the term sex or the sexes is due to those who wish to separate sexual identity from biological or physiological sex.

This must be to do with the kind of language English is, namely English has too many words at its disposal. And it has confused categories also.

On one hand, the controversy arises because there are different words like sex and gender, so some people may suggest, with various motivation, things like what's the precise difference between the words, e.g. to reserve one word for biological sex and the other word for every other case, or if there's no difference between the words, they may debate which one is the more correct word.

On the other hand, English has largely lost grammatical gender, but preserved it at the very heart of language use - pronouns. Grammatical gender may easily be perceived, in a society striving for equal rights or gleichschaltung, as a conceptual obstacle, and it becomes a subject of seemingly legitimate questioning when the language has history of loss of grammatical gender. The only last obstacle is how easy language change is to administer centrally.

Despite the diffusion of English all over the world, central administration of its change still seems possible, amazingly. For example "Negro" has been effectively eliminated.

Other languages may have whole different considerations. In French, German, and Russian, grammatical gender makes no ontological sense whatsoever (das Mädchen?), but is so pervasive in the "logic" of language and has no history of shifting or disappearing as a category, so that it's hard to argue for its eradication or for other major change. The only possible change would be political.

Then there are languages where there's no grammatical gender, certainly not in pronouns. In languages without grammatical gender, words like "man" and "woman" are not perceived connected t

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