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iwpoe wrote:
Indeed, on what usual definition of miracle would creation be a miracle since it cannot be outside the natural order when there is none.
It's not within the nature of any possible entity except God to create from nothing. Hence, creatio ex nihilo is a supernatural act. (We don't need a two-place predicate to get at what's being said with "outside of" here.)
But nothing hangs on the word "miraculous". The sentence can be rewritten: "It just follows that efficient causation sometimes occurs independently from the other three causes in [circumstances where God acts by primary causation]".
Last edited by John West (2/28/2016 1:23 am)
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iwpoe wrote:
This is why I'm inclined to call God's creation a unique causal power.
iwpoe,
I think you would find plenty of sympathy in Aristotle and Aquinas about the radical uniqueness of creation because creation isn't a change; whereas, the four kinds of causes we employ presuppose creation and describe and explain change. Hence an argument to God's necessity could be made both in the Physics and in the Metaphysics because the reality of change (Physics) can't be accounted for in terms of a change as this leads into an infinite regress.
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iwpoe wrote:
On my reading, creation is synonymous with God's sustaining of being, and is a continuous never ending cause of all events at all times and all places.
I agree. It is perhaps easier to think of creation as an original, necessary act; however, creation is not something that has ceased. The Deists probably were happy to see creation as a one-time event.
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Timocrates wrote:
I think you would find plenty of sympathy in Aristotle and Aquinas about the radical uniqueness of creation because creation isn't a change; whereas, the four kinds of causes we employ presuppose creation and describe and explain change.
Creatio ex nihilo is unique, but Aquinas and neo-Thomists (Ed, anyway) still consider it an act of efficient causation. (See #7).
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By the way, I think it's fine for people to use their own definitions. As long as we're clear that the strict Aristotelian definition hasn't been standard for hundreds of years now, and isn't going to be what most people mean by “efficient cause” anymore. So, when Ed and Poe (or, likely, any two other stand-ins) have a disagreement over whether creatio ex nihilo is an act of efficient causation, neither of them are actually wrong. It's just that Ed is saying efficient1 cause and Poe is saying efficient2 cause.
When trying to understand an interlocutor, it's important to understand what they mean by the words they use. I commented because I noticed that Poe was using Aristotle's definition, but Daniel answered in terms of what the scholastics considered efficient causation.
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We should be clear: the four (six) causes haven't been standard either, and the mishmash that is the post Humian view of 'cause' isn't properly an efficient cause either (because it often collapses the distinction between efficient and material and probably sometimes formal if we really dissected different views and what they entail).
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Actually, now that I think about it, Hume's own version of causation would most resemble a psychologized final causation, since presumably the association of perceptions is not arbitrary, and follows upon how the mind is directed in associating them.
Though, I'm not even sure it's right to say that Hume's version is a psychologized anything, since he provides no grounds to speak of a non perceptual world.
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iwpoe wrote:
Actually, now that I think about it, Hume's own version of causation would most resemble a psychologized final causation, since presumably the association of perceptions is not arbitrary, and follows upon how the mind is directed in associating them.
Though, I'm not even sure it's right to say that Hume's version is a psychologized anything, since he provides no grounds to speak of a non perceptual world.
I think that's an interesting observation, iwpoe, about Hume's account. He seems to be assuming something in his own examples that might be thought to beg the question against the conclusion he draws:
Internet Encyclopedia of Philosophy wrote:
Hume shows that experience does not tell us much. Of two events, A and B, we say that A causes B when the two always occur together, that is, are constantly conjoined. Whenever we find A, we also find B, and we have a certainty that this conjunction will continue to happen. Once we realize that “A must bring about B” is tantamount merely to “Due to their constant conjunction, we are psychologically certain that B will follow A”, then we are left with a very weak notion of necessity.
- David Hume: Causality
What made us associate the two events in the first place? Why do we not rather think B therefore A (and we sometimes might, if B is thought to be an effect presupposing certain, necessary cause)? I mean I am not the first to point out already that Hume here temporally separates the cause and its effect, which just compounds the issue, but why even associate event 1 with event 2, say? Again, even if we exaggerate the certainty that cause/event A is or will be the cause of event/effect B, what grounds did we have for thinking that B didn't instead cause A? I mean on Hume's account there's no reason why we shouldn't. Perhaps he just didn't see this consequence or maybe suppressed investigating it out of awkwardness and difficulty?
Last edited by Timocrates (2/28/2016 7:40 pm)
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Well, it really goes hand in hand with Hume's general sophistry. I know I'm sort of preaching to the choir here, but this is a man who speaks of all kinds of intellectual faculties but then denies that we can know anything about the mind. His own refutation of the ego of course would amount to a refutation of any knowledge of the faculties of memory, perception, association, imagination, etc, for, when I look within myself in the sense that Hume asks me to, I don't see the faculties themselves either but at most their products.
His entire rhetorical effect rests on the confidence with which he states his thesis and the fact that his conclusions are to jejune to the Enlightenment, however you argue for them.
Last edited by iwpoe (2/29/2016 5:07 am)
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Also, I've never been asked to give a full account of all the causes as faithful to the Greek view as I can, so I'm looking some things over and I shot an email to Lloyd Gerson for a little extra help. I don't want to give a poor account of "material cause" if I can avoid it, since I understand the distinction but not as sharply as I would like. The Platono-Aristotelian view of causation is so completly different from the usual ways of talking about cause today, that I'm going to have to get it very clear what's going on, since even I'm inclined to say things about especially efficient causation that aren't quite right or at least too quickly occlude the origional way of putting things.