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Hello,
I’ve read TLS and Feser’s Aquinas, as well as Scholastic Metaphysics. I’m still struggling to understand the ‘First Way’. I can’t understand why the First Mover must be unmoveable. What is to stop any given instance of movement terminating in something which is moveable, but unmoved?
Clearly, the first mover in a given instance of movement can’t be material, since observation indicates that any material mover is itself moving. But why can’t, say, an immaterial admixture of act and potency (an angel) act as a first mover in a given instance of movement?
I don’t find the solutions in TLS or Feser’s Aquinas particularly helpful. IIRC, Prof Feser suggests that movement implies the coming into existence of something that didn’t exist before (a particular molecular configuration). But I don’t see why an immaterial act/potency combination can’t do this, without itself being moved. Also, it’s hard to imagine the medievals using such arguments (which doesn’t mean they’re bad arguments of course; I’m just trying to understand what St Thomas is really getting at).
One solution I’ve come up with is that, even if we allow that a given instance of movement has an angel as its first mover, the fact that that angel has potency _ does _ imply something that can move it. It seems to me that it would be absurd to say that the angel could be moved, but that there was nothing that could move it. This would be self-contradictory, because if a thing can be moved in a certain way by its nature, then its nature implies the existence of something that can move it. This chain of, if you like, possible movement, must terminate in something that’s pure act.
Is this a good solution? Am I just going off the wall here?
Another possible solution is to suggest that to be a thing X _ just is _ to reduce potency to act in manner X. Thus to be an X just is to be in movement. The very existence of X therefore implies a mover, which must terminate in something that’s pure act.
Hope this question makes some sense: I have tried to be brief.
Thanks for any help,
English Catholic
Last edited by englich_catholic (6/04/2016 12:35 pm)
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Despite reading both TLS and Feser's Aquinas, I never understood how causal series per se and per accidens fit in with the First Way. It seems to me every causal series we know about either ends with a cause per accidens or "We don't know." For example, the example of the hand moving the stick moving the rock. The hand-stick-rock is ordered per se, but what is causing the hand to move? You can say various causes at that point, for example that the person who is moving their hand would not exist without having parents having conceived him, which is a cause per accidens, or you can say that he would not be able to move the stick were it not for the laws of physics and chemistry and biology, which are causes per se. But what causes the laws of physics? I would say the best answer science and philosophy have at this point is "I don't know." (Granted to a certain point we do know, for example, we know that certain things happen because of the attraction of electromagnetic forces. But eventually you reach a point, like the fundamental forces, where you say, "I don't know why there are fundamental forces"). I think someone on here once replied, "God causes the laws of physics," but we can't use that in a proof of God's existence without question begging.
Similarly with the case of the light hanging off a chain suspended from a ceiling, the light is supported by the chain which is supported by the ceiling as a causal series per se. What causes the ceiling to remain suspended? It is supported by the walls of the house. And what causes the walls of the house to remain standing? You can cite to the builder building it (a cause per accidens) or you can say it's supported by the foundation and then again cite to the laws of physics. And again, what causes the laws of physics? I don't know.
Which to my mind raises the question: how do we know that every causal series is not ultimately derived from causes per accidens? How do we know Alexander's third premise?
Last edited by ArmandoAlvarez (6/05/2016 2:37 pm)
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Thanks, Alexander. Could you please summarize Kerr's argument for me then? I looked for the book and saw it was $50 so that's a bit much for a book. I don't really see why we need only one first cause rather than one first cause for each causal series (i.e. the will of the person moving the rock is the first cause there, the earth is the first cause of the lamp-chain-house-earth causal series, etc.)
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"I don't really see why we need only one first cause rather than one first cause for each causal series (i.e. the will of the person moving the rock is the first cause there, the earth is the first cause of the lamp-chain-house-earth causal series, etc.)" Think about this way, the will of the person directs itself towards something. In other words, the actualization of a potential. Since, one has potencies then they cannot be Actus Purus.
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I too have been having trouble with seeing how thr first mover must be pure actuality. I think your response works, but I have a question. If anything with potentials requires something actual prior to it, does the thing prior in actuality have to actualize the potentials of the thing it is prior to? I mean say what if we had an angel which had a certain potential that was never actualized, and even though something existed prior to it in actuality it never acted on the potential of the angel even though it could. Would that mean in this sense the angel would be the real source of change instead of the thing prior to it in actuality as it never acts on the angel and the angel would not be dependent on it in terms of actuality?
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@AKG
Even though Alexander already responded (So far I agree with him) let me pitch in my two cents. In this case, the angel has potencies, so the angel is imperfect. If it is imperfect then that means that something actualized the angel and the angel is dependent on that something else. Only that of which is perfect in the most absolute sense cannot depend on anything else.
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Thanks for your replies. I’m only going to respond to Alexander’s first post for now; I’ll try and take in the rest later.
I’m distinguishing in my mind between movement-as-such (M1), and a-given-instance-of-movement (M2). I understand that M1 implies Pure Act, for the reasons I gave in the OP. And
I understand that M2 must be an essentially ordered causal series of movement which has an unmoved mover at its beginning. But I don’t see how an M2’s first mover must be identified with the unmoveable First Mover of all movement (ie the First Mover of M1). Why can an instance of M2 not have an angel as its first mover?
I’ve no questions about premises 1 and 3, but I’m not sure about premise 2:
“(2) This prior act is actual of itself, or moved to actuality by some prior act.”
I’m not quite certain I understand this. Can we subdivide it into
(2a) this prior act is actual of itself, OR
(2b) this prior act has been moved to actuality by some prior act, but is not being so in this instance of M2, OR
(2c) ditto, but it is being so moved in this instance of M2?
2a and 2c would lead to Pure Act. 2b seems to imply that an angel could move a given chain of movement without himself being moved.
Regards,
English Catholic
Last edited by englich_catholic (6/07/2016 8:50 am)