Some sources have stated(Edward Feser, and Stanford's article on dispositional/categorical properties) that the dispositional/categorical distinction between properties in modern philosophy is similar but not the same as the act/potency distinction made by Aristotle. Even even if the two distinctions are not 100 percent the same, I'm wondering if it would it be possible to get to Aristotle's Unmoved Mover or something like it using an argument developed in the same vein as the one Aristotle offered, but using the dispositional/categorical distinction of properties instead of the act/potency distinction. Does anyone else think this could work?