Offline
Scott and Timocrates:
How does the Maegisterium interpret this verse (that Spiculum cited earlier)?
"Jesus answered [Nicodemus the Pharisee, who came to Jesus by night]: Amen, amen I say to thee, unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God" (John 3 : 5)
Offline
Just as you'd expect: that water baptism (once the sacrament is established) is generally required. But since Jesus makes exceptions elsewhere (in City of God, for example, Augustine notes Matthew 10:32), it can't be interpreted to mean that the requirement is absolute and exceptionless.
Don't get too excited; "baptism of desire" is a narrow term and it doesn't by itself imply that salvation is even widespread (though we're permitted to hope!), let alone universal. But the Magisterium certainly doesn't take John 3:5 to mean that someone who has decided to become Catholic and then gets run over by a bus on his way to visit the priest is going to hell.
Offline
Scott wrote:
Just as you'd expect: that water baptism (once the sacrament is established) is generally required. But since Jesus makes exceptions elsewhere (in City of God, for example, Augustine notes Matthew 10:32), it can't be interpreted to mean that the requirement is absolute and exceptionless.
Fair enough.
Don't get too excited; "baptism of desire" is a narrow term and it doesn't by itself imply that salvation is even widespread (though we're permitted to hope!), let alone universal.
This is purely academic. I'm not trying to take out an insurance policy; I'm satisfied with what I have.
Last edited by Etzelnik (7/08/2015 3:11 pm)
Offline
Etzelnik wrote:
This is purely academic. I'm not trying to take out an insurance policy; I'm satisfied with what I have.
Understood.
Offline
Etzelnik wrote:
Scott and Timocrates:
How does the Maegisterium interpret this verse (that Spiculum cited earlier)?
"Jesus answered [Nicodemus the Pharisee, who came to Jesus by night]: Amen, amen I say to thee, unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God" (John 3 : 5)
The necessity of interior and spiritual regeneration ("born again") for admittance or participation in Heaven or the spiritual life, which when you think about it makes sense, in the sense that something must in some wise be consumed by fire in order to participate in the nature of fire.
For Christians, baptism (and the Eucharist) is a pledge and foretaste of this, which will have its fulfillment in the ressurection "for the elect" - even "multitudes" (Book of Revelation). The Apostle Paul also seems to speak of this in the context of the ressurection where he talks about being sown "a natural seed," which is sown in order that it may be risen up as "a spiritual seed."
I would stress that this theme is one of the grandest in Christian thinking that has occupied the greatest Christian scholars, thinkers and doctors. Saint Augustine's City of God is in a sense a grand extrapolation of this. So while the verse is obviously short, it is touching on a theme that is constant and central throughout the Christian scriptures.
Finally, it is a constant teaching that the emphasis on baptism by the Church is because the Church neither knows of nor has any other means or way wherein a human being may be assured of this necessary regeneration or renewal, which the Church believes is really effected in and by a valid baptism beyond any doubt.
That, Etzelnik, is my understanding so far from reading theologians and various Magisterial documents on this subject.
Last edited by Timocrates (7/08/2015 5:44 pm)
Offline
The necessity of interior and spiritual regeneration ("born again") for admittance or participation in Heaven or the spiritual life, which when you think about it makes sense, in the sense that something must in some wise be consumed by fire in order to participate in the nature of fire.
Unless, of course, we approach the union of body and spirit as a sanctified union itself, in which the body is already sanctified as a receptacle of spirit and needs no 'rebirth'.
Presumably, though, the Christian doctrine of Original Sin precludes this understanding.
This is for Timocrates and Scott:
You have been very critical of the strict interpretation of EENS. In that regard you have cited the latest Catholic Catechism and the 1949 letter. I have the following questions:
1. Are catechisms infallible in themselves, or are they infallible insofar as they cite infallible papal and ecumenical pronouncements?
2. The 1949 letter had the following key section:
But it must not be thought that any kind of desire of entering the Church suffices that one may be saved. It is necessary that the desire by which one is related to the Church be animated by perfect charity.
How common or rare is it today, for people outside the Church, to have "perfect charity." Aren't we tilting at windmills then, to even invoke the 1949 letter?
Offline
Etzelnik wrote:
The necessity of interior and spiritual regeneration ("born again") for admittance or participation in Heaven or the spiritual life, which when you think about it makes sense, in the sense that something must in some wise be consumed by fire in order to participate in the nature of fire.
Unless, of course, we approach the union of body and spirit as a sanctified union itself, in which the body is already sanctified as a receptacle of spirit and needs no 'rebirth'.
Presumably, though, the Christian doctrine of Original Sin precludes this understanding.
Well, I will say that the imageo Dei doctrine definitely sounds familiar to this. It is Christian doctrine that without exception every human life is sacred and without doubt this is on account at least primarily of the nature of the human soul.
As to Original Sin, you may well be right that this doctrine of Christianity is of moment in these considerations. However, I would only add that in Christian thought even original Paradise (a.k.a the state of original justice, from which, in Christian belief, man fell away from) is not thought to have been itself the entire fulfillment of God's destiny for either man or creation.
Therefore, we may make the following distinctions. First is that state of original justice in the beginning; the second is that fallen state that man ordinarily finds himself in by nature, and the final is the glorified state. In the first two cases what stands in need to be "reborn" is different. In the first, it is man's bodily being or life that can yet be more glorious or spiritual; in the second (fallen) state, both man's soul needs 'quickening' (or, as it were, rejuvenating) and also his body, as in the original case.
So I would agree. I see no problem with the idea of the soul naturally sanctifying the body (in any state). Hence it remains wrong to harm even a man's body or to fail to respect his bodily being because his body is the temple of his soul.
Offline
Richard wrote:
This is for Timocrates and Scott:
You have been very critical of the strict interpretation of EENS. In that regard you have cited the latest Catholic Catechism and the 1949 letter. I have the following questions:
1. Are catechisms infallible in themselves, or are they infallible insofar as they cite infallible papal and ecumenical pronouncements?
2. The 1949 letter had the following key section:
But it must not be thought that any kind of desire of entering the Church suffices that one may be saved. It is necessary that the desire by which one is related to the Church be animated by perfect charity.
How common or rare is it today, for people outside the Church, to have "perfect charity." Aren't we tilting at windmills then, to even invoke the 1949 letter?
"the desire by which one is related to the Church be animated by perfect charity"
Yes. If someone wishes to join the Church in order to do her harm, I imagine such a person's desire would not suffice.
You seem to be interpreting "perfect charity" here to mean perfectly charitable in everything; whereas, the condition as written is in respect specifically to the desire for baptism.
Last edited by Timocrates (7/08/2015 7:36 pm)
Offline
Virtually all of the statements concerning Father Feeney and his followers, as well as on the Dogma, "Extra Ecclesiam nulla salus", in this thread are seriously in error and need to be redressed
Etzelnik: No, followers of Fr. Feeney are not lacking in devotion to the Pope. In fact Fr. Feeney always practiced and insisted on complete loyalty to the reigning Pope.
Scott: No, Pope Pius XII did not sign the bogus "excommunication" of Fr. Feeney. In fact, no one in authority did.
Various: No, Fr. Feeney was not "excommunicated" for preaching EENS.
Scott: No, Pope Pius XII did not settle the "interpretation" of EENS duing his pontificate. It was in fact settled infallibly by Pope Innocent III at the Fourth Lateran Council in 1215: "There is but one universal Church of the faithful, outside of which no one at all is saved [nullus omnino salvatur]".
For information about Fr. Feeney's "excommunication" and related matters, please see this short article: