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Anyone else thinks it's pretty hilarious that Stardusty has been saying the same stuff almost every day for months?
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Miguel wrote:
Anyone else thinks it's pretty hilarious that Stardusty has been saying the same stuff almost every day for months?
As a CS Ph. D., I'm starting to think that Stardusty is a random chatterbot which has been fed gnu ath as a training set.
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--You proved my point in your own words. Neo-Aristotelian philosophy is not practiced by any recognized scientist. No scientific textbooks employ Neo-Aristotelian philosophy of science to teach physics or anything else besides ancient history.
The standard model, relativity, and quantum mechanics are all devoid of Neo-Aristotelian philosophy of science.
There is no place in the practice of modern science whatsoever for Neo-Aristotelian philosophy of science.
This is again false, You've given no argument for this conclusion and you also fail to engage with any concrete examples provided to you on this point.
--Temporally, not hierarchically. To find the first cause of motion, or more generally change, we must consider the deep past, at least as far back as the big bang.
But thats not relevant, What has been established is that series isn't accidental and Necessarily requires first cause.
--No counter examples have been offered to the fact that all observed real material alterations of observable properties occur absent motion.
Again, this is blatant assertion, You simply failed to engage with any and now assert that None has been provided.
--"For what is actually hot cannot simultaneously be potentially hot; but it is simultaneously potentially cold. It is therefore impossible that in the same respect and in the same way a thing should be both mover and moved, i.e. that it should move itself. Therefore, whatever is in motion must be put in motion by another." -- Aquinas, First Way
Aquinas had the erroneous world view that an object in motion have some "another" acting upon it in that moment. He was wrong. An object in motion is actually in motion, it is fully actualized in its respect of motion, it is fully actualize in its respect of kinetic energy.
An object in motion is not potentially in motion, rather, it is actually in motion. An object with a particular kinetic energy is not potentially at that particular kinetic energy, rather, it is actually at that kinetic energy.
This is my immediate reaction after reading this:
The problem is you don''t even understand what those terms mean in the first place other wise you wouldn't be making such humorously fallacious inferences.
Consider what "motion" for the guy you're quote-mining here to prove your point is in the first place, Its a reduction of Potency to act, something being in a process of being actually some way, A can said to be in motion towards point B if A is changing from being potentially at point B to actually at point B. That is what "motion" is in the first place. So the words " fully actualized in its respect of motion" are not just gibberish but Contradiction in terms, or at least they don't get you to where you want.
So now consider this sentence above , "An object in motion is not potentially in motion, rather, it is actually in motion." Further analysed, it just unpacks as"An Object in [process of being actualized from being potential] is not potentially in [process of being actualized from being potential],rather, it is actually in [process of being actualized from being potential]" which would be just like saying that "I am not Potentially Potentially old, rather I am actually Potentially old" Which won't get you anywhere. Similar is the case with your above.
In short the point is , since the very term you're using "Respect of Motion" designates potentiality, its nonsensical to speak of being "fully actualized in motion" .
Last edited by Calhoun (12/06/2017 1:23 pm)
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Frenchy, since you are a -- well -- Frenchy, have you read Louis Lavelle or any of the French spiritualist philosophers like René Le Senne? They were quite an interesting lot. Lavelle's main ideas seem to be that Being is actually act in the sense of action, and in a sense we "create ourselves" inasmuch as we exist as ourselves only as we act, and we therefore participate in Being, God. But maybe I got it wrong. He can be hard to understand, as is any continental philosopher. Some of these ideas can be taken from La Présence Totale; La Conscience de Soi and others. He also had some interesting works on morals, like L'erreur de Narcisse. Some people misunderstood Lavelle and thought he was a pantheist, but he was actually a theist, and also a christian. Overall I think they have way too much Cartesian and Malebranche in their tea, but they're still fascinating philosophers who unfortunately have been somewhat forgotten even in France. Much better than positivists, materialists and nihilists. Michele Federico Sciacca (Italian) was especially interesting and wrote some nice books on God and the soul
StardustyPsyche wrote:
@grod #143
Miguel wrote:Wait, grod is Portuguese? Não sabia.
Correcto. Provavelmente a única coisa correcta que Stardusty escreveu.
--Ok, so when I wrote that you are a "mathematical physicist" that was untrue. I thought so.
Also, when I wrote that you are a "PhD" that was untrue. I thought so.
Sou brasileiro, não esperava outro lusófono aqui. Bom saber. Mas o Stardusty é meio louco, mesmo.
Last edited by Miguel (12/06/2017 1:11 pm)
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Also, Frenchy, if you can manage to get your hands on any works by Yves R. Simon, I'd strongly recommend you to do so. He's more famous for his works on political philosophy, but he also has some great books on natural law, virtues, and also free will. I am currently reading his book on free will and I'm enjoying it very much. His writing is clear and I think anyone interested in free will should at least read his treatment of it. It has been published in English as "Freedom of Choice".
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@ficino,
Regarding #148
ficino wrote:
The commentator "Mr. Green" over in the comments on the Feser/Admed debate on F's blog supports the contention that A-T and modern science do not conflict. I think he holds that either they talk about different things or, when they talk about the same things, their terminological differences are only verbal. Mr. Green takes the same position that many other supporters of Feser take. I have no clue how to adjudicate. E.g.
I think Mr Green's contention is that there is no conflict between AT *metaphyics* and modern science. In fact, AT metaphysics provided the basic framework for Western science.
The particular example he uses regarding potential/kinetic energy and elasticity was explained by Liebnitz consciously using the Aristotlean ideas of potency and act (although he used "vis mortua" and "vis viva"). This is a matter of history.
But I'm not sure why you posted. Do you have a particular question?
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If you don't know how to adjudicate between Mr. Green, let alone Feser, and SP, I'm not sure what can be done for you.
No informed commentator sees no conflict between A-T philosophy and modern science. Certainly some of the obvious alleged conflicts (like science doesn't make use of act and potency) are actually nothing of the sort.
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bmiller wrote:
I think Mr Green's contention is that there is no conflict between AT *metaphyics* and modern science. In fact, AT metaphysics provided the basic framework for Western science.
But I'm not sure why you posted. Do you have a particular question?
Edward Feser does not only argue that there is no conflict between A-T metaphysics and modern science. He goes further to argue that various points of contradiction that have been seen between A-T physics and Newtonian physics are in fact not contradictions. He admits that some details of A-T physical analysis are obsolete, e.g. that the earth is the place toward which heavy bodies move naturally or that projectile motion differs from the former motion essentially. But when he elaborates, Feser often concludes that some aspect of contemporary theory in physics either requires A-T metaphysical theses or comes close to them or does not conflict with them. So I am trying to get straight how much of A-T physics Feser thinks also stands.
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@ficino:
"So I am trying to get straight how much of A-T physics Feser thinks also stands."
As far as I know Prof. Feser never made comment either way, maybe because the whole issue is irrelevant for his particular purposes and nothing more than a distraction.
On the other hand Carlo Rovelli (a physicist and expert in Loop Quantum Gravity) showed that Aristotelian physics is a good first approximation to Newtonian physics in a specific technical sense in Aristotle's Physics: a Physicist's Look -- see
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@ficino #158
"Edward Feser does not only argue that there is no conflict between A-T metaphysics and modern science
--That's because Feser vacillates between arguing against strawmen and making incomplete arguments and making false arguments.
There is no conflict between asserting motion and persistent existence are accounted for by a googleplex invisible unicorns pushing things along and modern science. Modern science cannot prove a googleplex invisible unicorns do not exist, just as modern science cannot prove god isn't nudging everything along moment by moment.
That is the strawman Feser knocks down.
Modern science shows that neither god or invisible unicorns are *necessary*.
The First Way fails as an argument for the *necessity* of a hierarchical first mover acting in the present moment to account for motion that is manifest and evident to our senses.
The Second Way fails as an argument for the *necessity* of a hierarchical first mover acting in the present moment to account for existential inertia that is manifest and evident to our senses.
Feser is completely incapable of addressing my arguments summarized in #7 and #8. His only capacity is to delete them, argue against strawmen, lay out sophomorically incomplete A-T examples, and trick the gullible into buying his books and articles behind paywalls.
Last edited by StardustyPsyche (12/07/2017 9:40 am)