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I'm still a fledgling student of Aquinas' theology, but a couple times now I've come across the concept of anaological attribution--that is, when we describe some attribute of God's, we attribute that characteristic to him only in a sense merely related to how we normally mean that characteristic, not in an equivocal or univocal way. Aquinas discusses this explicitly here.
But as tidy a philosophy as this seems, I struggle with it for two reasons. First, for Christians (which Aquinas certainly was), this doctrine of analogous predication must extend to include Christ, who is God. But if that's true, then I can think of a whole host of predicates which apply in an univocal sense to both God and humanity, because God became humanity in the person of Jesus. And it is theologically vital that he held his humanity in the same sense we do, because, as the church fathers zealously affirmed, "that which is not assumed is not redeemed." If Christ did not assume humanity in the same sense which we hold it, then he could not have redeemed us.
My second reason is weaker and may well rest on a misunderstanding, but it seem to me to difficult to show that this view doesn't reduce to just a equivocal view of predication. After all, analogy only works if there is a univocal understanding at its core. For example, I only understand the analogy at work between "see the truth" and "see the car" because I have full grasp of what each of those things literally mean, and know the difference in nature between the concepts of 'truth' and 'car' that produce a difference in means of 'seeing' them. But according to Aquinas (or at least, according to my interpretation of him), it would seem that everything that is a proper predicate of him must be understood analogically. But how then do we know anything of God? If someone said "I see the spoondle" I would have no idea in what sense "see" is being used because I have no idea what a spoondle is. In the same way, how can know God even analogically if we do not first grasp something of his nature through univical predicates?
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Mark wrote:
First, for Christians (which Aquinas certainly was), this doctrine of analogous predication must extend to include Christ, who is God. But if that's true, then I can think of a whole host of predicates which apply in an univocal sense to both God and humanity, because God became humanity in the person of Jesus.
As far as I know, Aquinas didn't contend that we could understand Christ's human nature only analogically. And the Incarnation itself is still a mystery, so even if we understand univocally that Jesus did this or that, we still don't understand univocally how it is that God did this or that.
Mark wrote:
My second reason is weaker and may well rest on a misunderstanding, but it seem to me to difficult to show that this view doesn't reduce to just a equivocal view of predication. After all, analogy only works if there is a univocal understanding at its core.
I think I agree that a univocal understanding has to be in principle possible (twhich as far as I can see just means the thing in question has to be intelligible in itself), but I don't think we have to have (or even be able to acquire) such an understanding (the thing doesn't have to be intelligible to us) in order to use analogical language. Consider (to adapt a fairly well-known example) a blind man who is told that "red is like the sound of a trumpet." He doesn't have a univocal understanding of red, and yet the analogical understanding seems to be effective enough for his purposes.
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Last edited by Scott (7/13/2015 5:58 pm)
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"As far as I know, Aquinas didn't contend that we could understand Christ's human nature only analogically. And the Incarnation itself is still a mystery, so even if we understand univocally that Jesus did this or that, we still don't understand univocally how it is that God did this or that."
But if we predicate things about Christ's human nature, aren't we predicating something about God? We can predicate about God that he is such a being that his person can have a human nature and we mean that he can have it in a sense univical to how we have it (and it must be univical to how we have it, or else he has not assumed humanity in the way necessary for our redemption).
Consider (to adapt a fairly well-known example) a blind man who is told that "red is like the sound of a trumpet." He doesn't have a univocal understanding of red, and yet the analogical understanding seems to be effective enough for his purposes.
How could we or he know that it is "effective for his purposes"? We have no way of knowing whether he has gained any knowledge about the color in itself that actually corresponds to reality, nor does he. The analogy only works for the sighted--and then only weakly--because we have prior knowledge of redness and the sounds of horns. It seems the blind man might just as easily gain a misconception about the nature of redness when given such an analogy; and couldn't we as well gain grace misconceptions about God if we really are like a blind man being given analogies of color?
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Mark wrote:
But if we predicate things about Christ's human nature, aren't we predicating something about God?
As far as I can see, our apparent ability to make such predications doesn't undermine Aquinas's primary point, which is that we don't have any direct knowledge of God's essence, what God is in and of Himself.
Moreover, even if we can say that God can "have" a human nature in a sense univocal to the way we "have" it, we're still more than a little hampered by the fact that we don't know precisely what that means. Again, the Incarnation is a mystery.
Mark wrote:
How could we or he know that it is "effective for his purposes"?
We could always ask him. But it doesn't matter; some analogies are closer than others, and I deliberately chose one that was rather a stretch just to make the point.
I won't be around much today, so please don't take it amiss if I don't reply further in a hurry.
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As far as I can see, our apparent ability to make such predications doesn't undermine Aquinas's primary point, which is that we don't have any direct knowledge of God's essence, what God is in and of Himself.
What if we rephrase the predication to "God, in and of Himself, has an essence such that he can take on a human nature (though the means of incarnation remain a mystery to us)"? For that matter, why not "God's essence, in and of itself, is such that finite creatures can't make non-analogous predications about it"?
We could always ask him. But it doesn't matter; some analogies are closer than others, and I deliberately chose one that was rather a stretch just to make the point.
Asking him doesn't help at all, because the point is that no one knows, not even him, whether the analogy is helpful for conveying what redness really is. He can't compare his idea of redness to the actual thing, and we can't compare actual redness to his idea. So there's an unbridgable gap. And this point holds even if we talk about a better analogy: If one were to call a sloppy person a "pig" the anology is very apt, but if I just don't know what a literal pig is then it doesn't matter how much of a stretch or not the analogy is, it simply can't convey useful information to me.
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Just checking back in briefly between rounds of busy-ness, and I like the way Alexander has answered the questions. So I'll just add my ditto.