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I have read Edward Feser book's "The Last Superstition" and he didn't adress the claim that Kant undermined the cosmological argument by demonstrating that it is so closely related with the ontological argument that it stands or falls with it. I wonder why and is Kant's claim that strong?
Thank for your answer
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I am somewhat aware of what Kant objects to but i am not familiar with the answers given to the objections. As far as i know, Kant gives two objections to the argument. One.that we infer from necessary being to ens realissimum only by assuming the ontological argument, but the ontological argument cannot be assumed. And the second one is the argument against the inference from change to a necessary being. One can respond that the cosmological argument doesn't have to work under the same rubric as the ontological argument, or even assume it. But even if the inference to the ontological argument doesn't work, a Kantian can possibly object that it doesn't touch his second objection. Here is a post made on reddit that goes in depth:
"In "the antinomies of pure reason", he argues against the inference from change to a necessary being. Briefly, his arguments are (i) on the basis of pure reason, we can argue as validly to a cosmological idea without a necessary being as to one with, and we have no means in theoretical reason to prefer one idea to the other; (ii) it's impossible for the concept of a necessary being to be exhibited in intuition, so that the concept of a necessary being stands intrinsically outside the conditions under which we can know something to be actual; and (iii) the regression along the causal series from a number of contingent causes to a necessary cause requires that the principle of sufficient reason be known to hold unequivocally, but the only basis we have for finding the PSR valid is insofar as it is constitutive of our knowledge of things, but then we do not know that it holds external to our knowledge of things. Then in "the ideal of pure reason", he argues against the inference from a necessary being to the ens realissimum. Briefly, his argument is that the notion of the ens realissimum and its being exhibited in the notion of a necessary being are matters established by the ontological argument, so that in the course of the cosmological argument we infer from necessary being to ens realissimum only by assuming the ontological argument, but the ontological argument cannot be assumed. So even if for some reason we think that Kant's objection to the inference from necessary being to ens realissimum fails as an objection to the cosmological argument, this leaves untouched, his objection from change to a necessary being."
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Hi Jean65,
I've not read the TLS, but I suppose Kant's claim is strong because Classical Theists claim that God is a broadly necessary being. That is to say that God is the ground of all modalities. I don't want to say that anyone who says that God doesn't exist is contradicting themselves (this is the force of the critique). However, I would preserve the primacy of God by arguing that he is a broadly logical necessity, to the extent that he is the cause of all being(s), as well as possible beings. Classical Theists argue for why this being must be called God by appealing to their specific metaphysic which all seem to say the same point via different means (metaphysic), that the necessary being must be a being without any potentiality. As such, talk of possible worlds is purely formal device which proceed from the experiences of our world as how it is, rather than how it seems to us.
Kant's critique, I think, is effective if we do not make further distinctions on how we use the term necessity. While Kant was busy with his a priori business, the most of St. Thomas's work is a posteriori. But Kant had already 'dispensed' of metaphysic, so the whole enterprise is of no meaning to him. As such, by accepting his distinctions and agreeing with the critique, one could realise that necessity can only mean something this tight, where if one can conceive against it, it isn't necessary.
You might want to take a look at this as well. Whether God is necessary or not, is an a posteriori matter, not a priori. We will say that the notion of necessity is metaphysically realised when we see that the non-existence of a Necessary Being is a state of affairs that is never obtained, and in fact, unobtainable, as such, he is an entity that is broadly logically necessary.
The idea that a Necessary being is metaphysically ultimate, concerns itself with something which is already existing, and demonstrable via reason. We can't say the same about the ontological argument since it tries to argue from the attribute of metaphysical ultimacy into the existence of a necessary being which we haven't yet established. We can establish God's existence a posteriori form reason, but Kant says that from that we cannot establish what kind of attributes such a thing (necessary being) has. But why not? He denies that reason can do, what the Classical Theists claim that it does. He has a ton of objections here, let us know which ones you want to deal with. Don't be shy to ask .
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How would a classical theist deal with his objection regarding change to a necessary being? I posted it as answer to the OP, which created another question more or less.
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A short answer - Kant's objections to the Cosmological Argument only make sense in the context of his own philosophical system (the Phenomena/Noumena distinction, the transcendental categories, space and time as forms of intuition and so forth), which very few modern philosophers accept. Ed did not discuss those objections in The Last Superstition because so few philosophers still bother with them*. So if someone wants to give the full Kantian objections they can but the onus will be on them as critic to justify the entire philosophical frame-work on which it rests.
*For instance I can't think of one modern philosopher of religion who holds that the Cosmological Argument depends on the Ontological. There are and have been many philosophers who accepted one of those arguments without accepting the other.
Kant's criticisms of the Cosmological Argument have been discussed a number of times on these forums, often in connection with weaker popular versions. For a sample see the following:
Other factors: as is welknown Kant's objection to the Ontological Argument is only valid against some versions anyway, and even there its disputed (for what it's worth I think the strongest reading oen can give to the Kantian objection is by reading it in reverse i.e. if Existence were a property then Non-Existence would be too ergo we would be commited to Meinongianism). More here:
Last edited by DanielCC (3/16/2016 6:07 am)
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Kant's objection to the ontological argument, i think, is cogent when we get into the nitty gritty of it but it doesn't hold the same weight against the modal ontological argument prominent today.
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Thanks for your answers.
As I understand what has been said, Kant's claim that we cannot infer from change to a necessary being largely depends on this whole philosophical system.
But I am struggling thereafter.
It seems that there are several points there.
First, Kant, it seems to me, says that, once we got the necessary being (NB), if we want do demonstrate that it is God, this fact is demonstrated by the ontalogical argument (OA).
Secondly, I have the impression that Kant implicitly says, that if we want to equate to infer from NB to God, and even if we don't use OA, we are using the same "style" of reasoning that OA is using.
Thirdly, I don't really grasp the whole discussion around the concept of necessity, and it appear that it is crucial here.
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I think I'm struggling a bit to understand why, according to Kant, the cosmological argument depends on the ontological argument. Is there a accessible introduction to this problem in order to help me to understand?
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Jean65 wrote:
I think I'm struggling a bit to understand why, according to Kant, the cosmological argument depends on the ontological argument. Is there a accessible introduction to this problem in order to help me to understand?
Kant assumes that the only reason why we take the necessary being of the Cosmological Argument to have the Divine Attributes we commonly associate with God is by taking the Ontological Argument in reverse, to witt the OA (as Kant understands it) holds that a perfect being is a necessary being - in the case of the Cosmological Argument we allegedly take the perfect being = necessary being conclusion and flip it round the other way, assuming that any necessary being must be a perfect being. Kant contests that without the truth of the OA we cannot accept that conclusion ergo the Cosmological Argument cannot get us to God.
Last edited by DanielCC (3/22/2016 5:35 pm)
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Hmm, does that objection have teeth? I'm willing to accept that it would be proper to call the PM 'God', but I'm not sure on what grounds you could be permitted to think that the PM has all perfections. I see a possible route, by an additional argument about motion, where you might make it plausible to claim that the PM has all perfections which are in motion, but then we must claim that God reserved no perfections to himself and/or that only the perfections in motion are perfections or else all we're claiming is that the PM has a bunch of perfections.
Last edited by iwpoe (3/22/2016 6:02 pm)