Classical Theism, Philosophy, and Religion Forum

You are not logged in. Would you like to login or register?

Religion » Efficacy of prayer » 12/30/2018 6:27 am

FZM
Replies: 5

Go to post

Due_Kindheartedness wrote:

@FZM the former is testing God but the latter isn't. The latter is observation.

​The studies I have come across are like consciously organised experiments with targeted recipients, control groups and so on and experimenters wanting to collect the results. They look like tests.

Intercessory prayer in 'natural' none experimental contexts is going on continuously. I don't know how you would observe whether it is 'effective' or not. (Besides the effectiveness of all of the prayer that isn't for healing illnesses).
 

Religion » Efficacy of prayer » 12/29/2018 5:18 am

FZM
Replies: 5

Go to post

Attempting to test God as a way of dispelling doubts is ruled out by a number of Bible passages. Both these things you mention seem to involve doing that. (I think there are often questions about the theological underpinnings of prayer studies, amongst other things.)

Religion » Jesus Christ » 12/15/2018 5:30 pm

FZM
Replies: 17

Go to post

There is some interesting material illustrating why Jesus Mythicism is a fringe position among historians on this guy's site:

https://historyforatheists.com/jesus-mythicism/

He's also an atheist.

Theoretical Philosophy » Alternative Solutions to Thomastic Cosmological Argumets » 12/14/2018 4:49 am

FZM
Replies: 11

Go to post

IgnorantSeeker wrote:

Thank you for your reply, but I find that a lot of atheists and scientists treat the laws of physics as if they prescriptive rather than descriptive. Dr. Lawrence Krauss' theory "a universe from nothing" is really "a universe from the law of gravity." It might be annoying to listen to Krauss reassuring everyone that no matter, energy, space, or time is nothing, but I still find his theory disturbing since it does credit the origin of the universe to something immaterial which is not God. 

​I thought Krauss was talking about a universe emerging from a quantum vacuum, something like that. A quantum vacuum is not nothing in the sense of 'absence of being', but is definitely something. Different critics have suggested his idea was just based on equivocation over the meaning of the term nothing.


 

Theoretical Philosophy » Alternative Solutions to Thomastic Cosmological Argumets » 12/14/2018 4:38 am

FZM
Replies: 11

Go to post

RomanJoe wrote:

IgnorantSeeker wrote:

RomanJoe wrote:

It doesn't matter if one puts forth the laws of physics as a temporal genesis of the universe. The Aristotelian-Thomist isn't beholden to a temporal prime mover, rather he tries to reason towards an ontologically fundamental prime mover--one that grounds the existence of the universe here and now at every moment. Even if the universe began via some secular notion of scientific laws, the universe itself would still contain essentially-ordered causal series of essence and existence, act and potency. One could also invoke an argument from contingency by the fact that the universe consists of composite beings and is itself metaphysically composite.

Besides, according to a Artsitotelian-Thomistic account of physical laws, such laws can't exist in a vacuum--they are contingent on real beings because they are abstractions of how real beings operate given their nature. Therefore, to argue that phsycial laws are responsible for the genesis of the universe would be to get things backwards because, according to the AT proponent, those physical laws only exist in virtue of there being real phsycial natures to describe.

You've successfully sold me on the Aristotelian-Thomistic account of physical laws, but I'm still lost as to why there cannot exist a multiplicity of unactualized actualizers that might govern different parts of the universe in the here and now. For example, one unactualized actualizer might actualize gravity; another would actualize electromagnetism; a third would actualize the strong force; and a final would actualize the weak force. These four would together actualize the whole of the universe, without one being supreme over the others. This multiplicity of unactualized actualizers could not properly be called God, since they only govern a particular domain of the universe. I know that such a philosophy is unprovable, but I don't see how it is impossible.

Aquinas writes that God cannot be constitu

Theoretical Philosophy » Assuming PSR is false, in what other ways can we still prove God?? » 12/12/2018 4:15 am

FZM
Replies: 50

Go to post

Noble_monkey wrote:

Correct, for example, the proponent of the kalam argument would argue that the CP they give does not exclude brute facts with regards to contingent beings or natural ends.

>If brute facts are possible then causal connections could be entirely unintelligible.

Well that's the purpose of a CP. It's to show that the causal connections between an effect and its cause are an objective feature of reality and therefore the effect is not a brute fact.

​I thought brute facts also involved things coming into existence with no cause.

I'm not sure how you would defend Kalam or the objectivity of any causal principle without some kind of PSR. 
 

Theoretical Philosophy » God is a quark? How do you arrive at God from per se causality, etc? » 12/10/2018 4:43 am

FZM
Replies: 15

Go to post

ForumUser wrote:

ClassicalLiberal.Theist wrote:

ForumUser wrote:

I've been reading Ed Feser's Aquinas and after finishing with his discussion of Aquinas' First Way, and midway into the Second Way, it appears to me he neglected to answer the objection that a per se causal series can terminate with a natural thing. The rock's motion depends on the stick which depends on the hand, muscles, electrical stimuli, brain neurons, atoms, quarks. Is a quark made of anything? Perhaps not. Apparently not? Why doesn't the buck stop there, as far as this 'unmoved mover' argument is concerned? Why must you instead necessarily arrive at God, Creator of the Universe, for any per se causal event (or observation of some motion, i.e. potential becoming actualized)?
 

Per se causal series, can not even in principle, terminate in a natural thing. They must terminate in necessity and all natural things are contigent. Thus, they don't fit the bill. Attempting to end a per se causal series of contigent things, with a contigent thing (which would be all natural things, even if they're small), is incoherent. I could give you a more in-depth response, if you wish.

You'll definitely need to elaborate for me, because it is not self-evident that all matter and energy is contingent.

I also do not see how the fact that a collection of quarks was positioned at (x,y,z) instead of (x', y', z') prior to someone moving a stone with a stick implies God's existence. To phrase my problem another way, it is not clear to me why God's existence must be the brute fact rather than the universe's existence (i.e. the set of all matter and energy).

​What matter or energy would be a necessary being?

​It's possible that the A/T view has a different idea of what the basic metaphysical components of reality are.

​I understand a brute fact as something whose existence has no cause and no explanation. The Thomistic arguments for the existence of God don't obviously s

Chit-Chat » Reading recommendations on the metaphysics behind modern science? » 11/28/2018 4:26 am

FZM
Replies: 17

Go to post

RomanJoe wrote:

I'm interested in learning more about the metaphysical presuppositions of modern science and, broadly speaking, secural thought. I'm specifically looking for something that gives a general overview of the historical origins of modern metaphysics and how it flourished despite emerging from a world which endorsed a more Aristotelian understanding of nature.

Hi Joe,

You might find this one interesting:

​E.A. Burtt, The Metaphysical Foundations of Modern Physical Science: The Scientific thinking of Copernicus, Galileo, Newton and their Contemporaries, Humanity Books, 1999

​There are various editions going back to the 1920s. It is quite old but is quite easy to get hold of if you don't have access to a university library and it covers specifically the move from the Aristotelian worldview to the Cartesian/Newtonian one.

Theoretical Philosophy » God is a quark? How do you arrive at God from per se causality, etc? » 11/24/2018 4:29 am

FZM
Replies: 15

Go to post

ForumUser wrote:

The only thing he says is that if it has potency, then that potency must be actualized and hence it isn't the terminus of a per se series. I do not see how that applies to quarks as the fundamental constituents of matter. It appears to me that their only potency is being in one place rather than another -- namely, their current location rather than a different one, and this potency has no bearing on the fact that they were triggered by present stimuli (according to naturalism) to collectively form a neuron firing to move a limb to move a stick to move a rock. So the idea that the terminus of a per se series must be 'pure actuality' and hence be God seems simply false.

​The first way is an argument from change, particularly change of location, so if quarks change location that is enough for the argument to start. If their behaviour changes in other ways it is also going to be relevant. It seems that any individual quark has a lot of potencies, to be at a range of different locations, and some of these potencies are actualised as it changes location. 

​The act/potency distinction and various principles of causality that arise from it are important for this argument (and the 2nd Way), I can't remember how much space Feser devotes to explaining it in Aquinas​. His book Scholastic Metaphysics​ does so at greater length. Then, he develops a similar argument but more systematically in Five proofs of the Existence of God.

​​I found a little book by Stephen Mumford called Metaphysics: A Very Short Introduction (OUP 2012), particularly the first three chapters and chapter 4 'What is change?', gives a broad idea of where these kinds of arguments are coming from.  
 

Theoretical Philosophy » God is a quark? How do you arrive at God from per se causality, etc? » 11/23/2018 12:42 pm

FZM
Replies: 15

Go to post

ForumUser wrote:

Or, if one must explain why the quarks are being held together by the nuclear forces to form atoms, then it seems to me we are equally justified to say that this recurring observation (which we refer to as the strong force and weak force) "just exists" as a brute fact, rather than say that "God exists to cause the strong force and weak force to exist" as a brute fact. I mean, I do not see any justification for declaring God to be the brute fact rather than the apparent laws of nature as the brute fact. In other words, we can say "It is in the universe's nature to exist" more easily than we can say "It is in God's nature to exist, and God holds the universe in existence". (The former accounts for our suffering; the latter does not, and hence holds greater explanatory power. That is, if we regard 'God' as the god of Abraham, rather than merely an indifferent clockmaker-type deistic god.)


I haven't got a lot of time to post at the moment but I think the first proof is a kind of deductive proof, not an inference to the best explanation one. It starts from the Aristotelian analysis of change and uses this to deduce that a being which is pure act to required to make the change we experience possible. It's somewhat different to a scientific inference based explanation.

​Also, I think discussion of the problem of evil in relation to this argument will lead to digression/obscurity. It isn't helpful in understanding the argument.



 

Board footera

 

Powered by Boardhost. Create a Free Forum